Karnataka 2004 pg entrance Exam with answers



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Karnataka 2004 PG entrance Exam with answers

 

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1-All of the following are chromosomal breakage syndrome except:
a-Fanconi’s anaemia b-Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
c-Bloom syndrome d-Ataxia telengiectasia
Ans-B

2- All of the following are morphologic feature of apoptosis except:
a-Cell shrinkage b-Chromatin condensation
c-Inflammation d-Apoptotic bodies
Ans-C

3-“Macropolycyte “ in peripheral smear is a feature of:
a-Hereditary spherocytosis b-Iron deficiency anaemia
c-Sickle ceel anaemia d-Megaloblastic anaemia 
Ans-D

4-Most common second malignancy in patients with FAMILIAL Retinoblastoma is:
a-Teretoma b-Medullary carcinoma
c-Osteosarcoma d-Malignant melanoma
Ans-C

5-Polyp in Peutz Jeghers syndrome are:
a-Adenomatous polyps b-Hyperplastic polyps
c-Hamartomous polyps d-Pseudopolyps
Ans-C

6-Histologic hallmark of rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis is:
a-Crescent in most of the glomeruli
b-Loss of foot process of epithelial cells
c-Subendothelial dence deposites
d-Diffuse thickening of glomerular capillary wall
Ans-A


7-All of the following are true for complete mole except:
a-Diffuse circumferential trophoblastic proliferation
b-Hydropic swelling of villi
c-No fetal parts seen
d-Triploid karyotype (seen in partial mole)
Ans-D


8-Histologic hallmark of paget disease of nipple is:
a-Comedo necrosis
b-Infiltration of the epidermis by malignant cells
c-Atypical lobular hyperplasia
d-Desmoplasia
Ans-B


9-In early gastric carcinoma malignancy is confined to:
a-Mucosa
b-Mucosa and submucosa
c-Gastric wall without lymphnode metaasis
d-Gastric glands
Ans-B

Early gastric cancer (T1 or 2, N0/1, P0, H0)


  • Suitable for attempted curative resection if the patient is medically fit enough.

  • Surgery is simple or radical gastrectomy.

  • Local resection or ablation has an uncertain place in treatment.

Advanced gastric cancer (T3 or more or any of N2/P1+/H1+)


  • Surgical intervention very unlikely to be curative. May be undertaken for palliative treatment.

  • Local ablation for symptom control occasionally possible.

  • Palliative chemotherapy occasionally effective for disseminated disease.

Table 7.1 TNM staging of gastric cancers

T (tumour)

N (nodes)

M (metastases)

Tis, in situ within mucosa

N0, no lymph nodes

P (peritoneal metastases)

T1, confined to submucosa

N1, involved nodes within 3cm of primary

P0, no peritoneal metastases

T2, confined to muscle wall

N2, involved nodes more than 3cm from primary

P1/2/3, peritoneal metastases in increasing extent

T3, involvement of serosal surface

H (hepatic metastases)

T4, involvement of other organs

H0, no hepatic metastases

H1/2/3, hepatic metastases in increasing extent


10-Which hepatitis virus is notorious for causing a chronic hepatitis evolving cirrhosis?
a-Hepatitis C virus b-Hepatitis B virus
c-Hepatitis E virus d-Cytomegalo virus
Ans-A


11-Example of type IV hypersensitivity:
a-Coagulase test b-Mantoux test
c-Schick test d-Elek’s test
Ans-B


12-Recommended vaccines for rabies:
a-DPT b-MMR
c-BCG d-HDCV Ans-D


13-Pigment producing colonies are seen in:
a-Pseudomonas b-Atypical mycobacteria
c-Serratia marcescens d-All of the above 
Ans-D


14-Flurescent microscopy is used to diagnose:
a-Mycobacterium tuberculosis b-Staphylococcus aureus
c-Streptococcus capsulatum d-Klebsilla aerogenes
Ans-A


15-Germ tube test is diagnosis for:
a-Candida albicans b-Cryptococcus neoformans
c-Histoplasma capsulatum d-Coccidiodomycosis
Ans-A

A germ tube test is a diagnostic test in which a sample of fungal spores are suspended in serum and examined by microscopy for the detection of any germ tubes.[2] It is particularly indicated for colonies of white or cream color on fungal culture, where a positive germ tube test is strongly indicative of Candida albicans.[2]


16-pH of sabouraud’s dextrose agar is adjusted to:
a-4-6 b-1-2
c-6-8 d-8-10
Ans-A


17-Painless hematuria is seen in:
a-Schistostoma hematobium b-Schistostoma mansoni
c-Schistostoma japonicum d-Paragonium westermani
Ans-A


18-Babesoisis is transmitted by:
a-Tick b-Mites
c-flea d-Mosquito
Ans-A


19-Dengue fever is transmitted by:
a-Tiger mosquito b-Jackal mosquito
c-Wolf mosquito d-Lion mosquito
Ans-A


20-Complication in Malaria are commonly seen with:
a-Plasmodium ovale b-Plasmodium vivax
c-Plasmodium falciparum d-Plasmodium malariae
Ans-C


21-Type III category of basal FRACTURE of skull are:
a-Those that run in the coronal plane from lateral end of one petrous through sella turcica to lateralend of contralateral petrous ridge
b-Run from side to side in the coronal plane but do not pass through the sella turcica
c-Run from front to the contralateral back passing through the sella turcica
d-Run from front to back involving all cranial fossae & sella turcica .
Ans-B


22-The various component of a will to be valid are:
a-A knowledge of the property to be disposed of
b-A legatee can attest a will
c-Presence of delusion not affecting in any way the disposal of the property or the person affected by the will
d-It should be made during lucid interval
Ans-?


23-Reasons for marked variation in the shape of exit wounds of rifled weapons:
a-Deformation of bullet during its passage through body and thereby presenting an irregular wound
b-Absence of tumbling of the bullet in the body & hence it may not be able to exit with nose end first
c-Intact bullet in the body after striking bone
d-At times , both entry and exit wounds are of the same as in the assassination of kennedy , President of USA
Ans-A


24-“Dry Submarine “ in custodial torture injuries refer to:
a-Falanga beating on soles of feet
b-Tying of a plastic bag over the ears 
c-Immersing head in contaminated water
d-Suspending the accused by ankles
Ans-B


25-“CAFÉ coronary “ refer to death in intoxication person during meals due to :
a-Suffocation b-Natural cardiac death
c-Choking d-Smothening
Ans-C


26-The single test that confirms the diagnosis of autoimmune hemolytic anaemia is:
a-Coombs test b-Reticulocyte count
c-Peripheral smear d-Hemoglobin electrophoresis
Ans-A


27-The advantage of breast feeding to the mother includes:
a-Decrease postpartum bleeding b-Prevention of breast cancer
c-Spacing of pregnancies d-All of the above 
Ans-D


28-All these condition can produce metabolic acidosis except:
a-Diabetic ketoacidosis b-Salicylate poisoning
c-Gastroenteritis with dehydration d-Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
Ans-D


29-All these condition are autosomal dominant disorders except:
a-Marfan’s syndrome

b-Hunter syndrome 
c-Osteogenesis imperfecta

d-Achondroplasia
Ans-B


30-All these conditions can produce first day jaundice in newborn except:
a-RH incompatibility b-TORCH infection
c-Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis d-G6PD deficiency
Ans-C


31-Infantile hemiplegia can occur due to cerebrovascular accidents resulting in:
a-Thrombosis b-Embolism
c-Staphylococci d-All of the above 
Ans-D


32-Common cause for epiglottitis in children is due to :
a-Hemiphilus influenza b-Pneumococci
c-Staphylococci d-Strepyococci
Ans-A


33-The cause for anoxic spells in children include all except:
a-Tranposition of great vessels b-Tricuspid artresia
c-total anomalous muscular venous return d-Coarctation of aorta
Ans-D


34-Gower sign is classical of one of the following condition:
a-Congenital myopathy b-Werdnig-Hoffman disease
c-Duchenne muscular muscular dystrophy d-Guillain-Barre syndrome
Ans-C


35-All these condition are SEX chromosome disorder except:
a-Turner syndrome b-Kline filter syndrome
c-Super female d-Down’s syndrome
Ans-D

36-Thought disorder is seen in:
a-Obsessive compulsive disorder b-Anxiety neurosis
c-Schizophrenia d-Psychopathic personality
Ans-A,C

37-Repetative hand washing is symptom of;
a-Posy-traumatic stress disorder b-Depression
c-Anorexia nervosa d-Obsessive compulsive disorder
Ans-D


38-Clozapine is a:
a-Atypical anti-psychotic drug b-Anti-anxiety drug
c-Used in dementia d-Also known as disulfiram
Ans-A


39-Flouxetine is a :
a-Anti- psychotic drug b-Used in opiate poisoning
c-Tricyclic antidepressant d-Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor 
Ans-D


40-Fluctuating level of consciousness is seen in:
a-Hysteria b-Delirium
c-Dementia d-Mania
Ans-B


41-After oral ingection of 8- methyoxypsoralen , how long an interval should be allowed before UVA radiation is given in PUVA treatment?
a-1 hr b-2 hr 
c-3 hr d-4hr
Ans-B


42-Which positive test does not necessarily indicate HIV infection in a newborn?
a-ELISA for HIV IgG antibody

 b-p24 antigen
c-Virus culture d-ELISA for HIV IgA antibody
Ans-A


43-Each of the following is caused by a pathogen of a Borrelia species , except:
a-Erythema chronicum migrans

b-Acrodermatitis chronica atrophicvans
c-Epidemic relapsing fever d-Rat bite fever 
Ans-D


44-Which of the following may occur either as a result of an elevated antrogen level or an exaggerated clinical response of tissues to androgen?
a-Acne b-Hirsutism
c-Alopecia d-All of these 
Ans-D


45-Which of the following is found least frequently in patients with TEN (Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis)?
a-Anamia (erythrocytic) b-Lymphopenia
c-Neutropenia d-Eosinophilia
Ans-D

46-The target material used in X –ray tube:
a-Tin b-Tungsten 
c-Platinum d-Copper
Ans-B


47-The following are radiological features of sigmoid vovulus except:
a-Inverted U shaped bowel loop b-liver overlap sign
c-Bird of prey sign d-Cupola sign
Ans-D


48-Medical sonography employs ultrasound frequency between:
a-1-2 MHz

b-Less than 1 MHz
c-100 Hz

d-Greater than 100 MHz
Ans-A


49-Colour Doppler study can evaluate the following except:
a-Direction of blood flow b-Velocity of blood flow
c-Impedence index d-Intravascular pressure 
Ans-D


50-The Radionuclide used in assessing the renal morphology:
a-Thallium-201

b-99mTc-DMSA (for morp)
c-99mT-DTPA (for function)

d-99mTc-MAG
Ans-B


51-In Ranson’s criteria to predict severity of acute pancreatitis:
a-A serum amylase that is 4 times normal is significant
b-Serum amylase level is not a a criteria
c-Rising serum amylase level are important
d-Serum amylase equals urine amylase
Ans-B

Glasgow Imrie criteria

3 or more positive criteria within 48h of admission = severe attack


  • Age > 55y

  • WCC > 15 000 × 109/L

  • Glucose > 7mmol/L

  • Blood urea > 7mmol/L

  • Albumin < 35g/L

  • Corrected calcium < 2mmol/L

  • PaO2 < 10kPa


52-Non-propulsive peristalsis is feature of:
a-Paralytic ileus b-Impacted faeces
c-Mesenteric vascular occlusion d-Incarceration
Ans-C


53-The operative wound after surgery for gangrenous , perforated appendicitis is best managed by:
a-Primary suture b-Delayed primary closure 
c-Healing by secondry intention d-Antibiotic lavage
Ans-B

54-A thrombosed external haemorrhoid ( or perianal haematoma ) is:
a-Painless, with gradual onset

 b-The 5 days , painful , self curing lesion 
c-Part of internal haemorrhoids

d-A sentinel pile
Ans-B


55-The ratio of males to female in the incidence of strangulated inguinal hernia in infancy is :
a-5:1 b-1:2
c-2:1 d-1:5 
Ans-D


56-Treatment of intracapsular FRACTURE in a man aged 60 years:
a-Dynamic hip screw fixation b-Total hip replacement
c-Hemiarthroplasty d-Austin Moore pinning
Ans-C


57-Barlows test is done to diagnose:
a-C.D.H. b-Cruciate ligament tear
c-Shoulder dislocation d-Ankle joint instability
Ans-A


58-Osteochondritis of lunate bone is known as:
a-Perthes disease b-Osgood schlatters disease
c-Kohler’s disease d-Kienbock’s disease 
Ans-D


59-Spine ventosa is caused by:
a-Leprosy b-Defect in the spine
c-Tuberculosis d-Gout
Ans-C


60-Calcification of inter vertebral disc is a feature of:
a-Ankylosing spondilitis

b-Hyper parathyroidis
c-Charcot’s disease

d-Alkaptonuria
Ans-D


61-Tom Smith’s arthritis of hip joint is due to:
a-C.D.H. b-Post polio
c-Pyogenic infection d-Cerebral palsy
Ans-C


62-Osteosarcoma arises from:
a-Epiphysis b-Diaphysis
c-Metaphysis d-Bone marrow
Ans-C


63-Reversal of albumin-globulin ratio is seen in:
a-Osteochondroma b-Multiple myeloma
c-Osteoclastoma d-Osteoid osteoma
Ans-B


64-Treatment of bone cyct;
a-Amputation b-Bone grafting 
c-Chemotheraphy d-Disarticulation
Ans-B

65-Osteochondroma is also known :
a-Exostosis b-Gaint cell tumour
c-Ivary osteoma d-Osteoblastoma
Ans-A

66-Oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve is shifted to the right in the following condition:
a-Acidosis b-Increase 2-3 DPG level
c-Hyperthermia d-All the above
Ans-D

Hemoglobin binding curve: causes of shift to right Hi Yield [ID 2561]

"CADET, face right!":

CO2

Acid

2,3-DPG (aka 2,3 BPG)

Exercise

Temperature

67-Following are the effects of thiopentose sodium anaethesis except:
a-Respiratory depression b-Reduced cardiac output
c-Good uterine relaxation d-Low intraocular tension
Ans-C

68-Contra indication for nasotracheal intubation:
a-Basal skull fractures b-Neonates
c-Difficult intubation d-Prolong intubation
Ans-A

69-Blood collected from acid citrate dextrose can be stored for:
a-28 days b-21 days 
c-14 days d-7 days
Ans-B


70-Advantages of regional analgesia blockade are all these except:
a-A reduced need for opioids
b-Early resumption for normal activity and ambulation
c-A quick awakening from general anaesthesis
d-Increase of the stress response
Ans-D


71-Corneal manifestation of Wilson’s disease is :
a-Fleischer Ring b-Arcus Juvenilis
c-Keyser Fleischer Ring d-Band Keratopathy
Ans-C


72-Diabetic retinopathy causes :
a-Traction Retinal Detachment b-Neovascular glaucoma
c-Vitreos haemorrhage d-All of the above 
Ans-D


73-Giant Papillary Conjunctivitis is caused by:
a-Contact Lens wear b-Ocular Prosthesis
c-Protruding corneal sutures d-All of the above 
Ans-D


74-Ethambutol toxicity leads to :
a-Steven Johnson syndrome
b-Pupillary dilatation
c-Visual loss with colour vision defects
d-Bull’s eye retinopathy (chloroquine)
Ans-C


75- Field defect seen in papilledema
a-Seidel’s scotoma
b-Constriction of peripheral fields
c-Centro-caecal scotoma
d-None of the above.
Ans-


76- Dysphagia for fluids but not to solids is seen in :
a-Stricture
b-Achalasia (hellers myotomy)
c-Carcinoma oesophagus
d-Reflux oesopagitis
Ans-B


77-Epistaxia in elderly person is common in:
a-Foreign body b-Allergic rhinitis
c-Hypertension d-Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
Ans-C


78-Cerebello pontine angle tumour is most commonly:
a-Acoustic neuroma b-Cholesteatoma
c-Meningioma d-All of the above
Ans-A


79-Gradenigo’s syndrome does not consist of:
a-Abduscent nerve palsy b-Palatal palsy 
c-Aural discha d-Retro orbital pain
Ans-B

80-Early symptoms of carcinoma larynx:
a-Dysphagia b-Cough
c-Haemoptysis d-Hoarseness of voice
Ans-D


81-Physiologically, oxytocin is characterized by all except:
a-Circulates entirely in free form
b-Plasma half life 5-7 minutes
c-Level increase during labor
d-Released in pulsatile fashion
Ans-C


82-Studies have indicated the most important of the components of the Bishop score to be that related to:
a-Dilatation b-Effacement
c-Station d-Consistency
Ans-A

Karnataka 2004 PREPG with answers
83-The factor that is likely to influence the rate of relapce and prognosis in patients with ovarian cancer is:
a-Tumor grade b-Tumor stage
c-Intraoperative Rupture of tumor d-Presence of dence adhesion
Ans-C


84-Most common symptom associatd with uterine myomas:
a-Menorrhagia b-Metrorrhagia
c-Pressure d-Urinary frequency
Ans-A

85-How much is the risk of ovarian cancer increased above normal in a women with nonautosomal dominant genotype with one first degree related with ovarian cancer:
a-2-3 times b-5 times
c-10 times d-20 times
Ans-A

86-What is the most common method for detecting early stage ovarian cancer?
a-Evaluaation of vague gastrointestinal symtomss
b-Palpation of an asymptomatic mass during routine pelvic examination
c-Screening CA 125
d-Screening vaginal ultrasound
Ans-B


87-Which ultrasound finding with an adnexal mass is most suspicious for malignancy?
a-8 cm in diameter b-Several internal excrescences 
c-Cyctic with two thin septations d-Freee pelvic fluid
Ans-B


88-The most common major complication with Laparoscopic hysterectomy is:
a-Urinary tract injury b-Bowel injury
c-Uncontrolled bleeding d-Pulmonary embolus
Ans-A


89-The patient with pre-eclampsia diagnosed remote from term, which of the following is NOT necessarily an indication for expeditious delivery:
a-Blood Pressure 170/115 on medication
b-Proteinuria 5g per 24 hours 
c-Platelet count 80,000/ul
d-Serum transaminase levels three times normal
Ans-B


90-Independent risk factors for pre-eclampsia include all except:
a-hyper homocycteinemia b-Race 
c-Number of partners d-Family history
Ans-B


91-Pregnancy- associated risk factor for pre-eclampsia include all except:
a-Rh Incompatibility b-Multiple pregnancy
c-Fetal structural abnormalities d-trisomy 13
Ans-A


92-The severity of pelvic pain in patients with endometriosis correlated best with:
a-Number of implants b-Depth of invasion of lesions 
c-Type of lesions d-stage of disease
Ans-B


93-accepted indication for Assisted Reproductive Technologies (ART) in endometriosis patients include all of the following except:
a-Advanced disease

b-At least one year of infertility 
c-Multifactorial infertility

d-Advanced disease
Ans-B


94-The data are most convincing for which theory as the pathogenesis of endometriosis in the peritoneal cavity:
a-Coelomic metaplasia b-Induction
c-Embryonic rests d-Lymphatic & vascular metastasis
Ans-C


95-Endometroisis has been found in all of the following location except:
a-spleen b-Central Nervous system
b-Extremities d-Pancreas
Ans-A

96-controlled ovarian hyperstimulation as a treatment for infertility is most useful in which patient:
a-Women with premature ovarian failure
b-Women undergoing cancer therapy
c-Couples undergoing artificial insemination
Ans-C


97-The formation of primordial follicle in human fetus is completed by:
a-4 weeks b-8 weeks
c-13 weeks d-18 weeks
Ans-D


98-During pregnancy there is an increased respiratory sensitivity to Carbon dioxide due to higher circulating level of:
a-Progesterone b-Estrogen
c-Estriol d-Prolactin
Ans-A


99-An effective and safe treatment for recurrent lag cramps in the second half of pregnancy is:
a-Vitamin C b-Vitamin D
c-Acetaminophen d-Calcium 1 gm. Twice daily for 2 weeks 
Ans-D


100-The Ureter:
a-Crosses superior to the uterine artery in the Broad ligament
b-Derives its sympathetic nerve supply from the 2nd and 3rd lumbar nerve roots
c-Is widest at the pelvic ureteric junction
d-Derives its blood supply entirely from the renal and superior vesical arteries
Ans-B


101-Who said these words: “To study phenomenon of disease without books is to sail an uncharted sea, while to study without patients is not to go to sea at all”
a-Hamilton Bailey b-Sir Robert Hutchison
c-Sir William Osler d-J.B.Murphy
Ans-C


102-T1 & T2 images are a feature of which diagnostic test?
a-Ultrasound b-C. T. scan
c-Duplex scan d-MRI scan
Ans-d


103-Who said: “SKIN is the best dressing?
a-Joseph Lister b-John Hunter
c-James Paget d-McNeill Love
Ans-A

104-How do you get an ideal scar?
a-Achieve quite, secondry healing b-Ensure tight closure of the SKIN
c-Give antibiotics d-Minimize tension
Ans-D


105-Hypokalemic alkalosis is commonly seen in surgical wards in:
a-Excessive absorption of alkali b-Excessive vomiting in pyloric stenosis
c-Eessive steroid use d-Diarrhoea with dehydration
Ans-B


106-5% dextrose in normal saline is :
a-Hypotonic b-Isotonic 
c-Hypertonic d-A blood substitute
Ans-B


107-Infection with Hepatitis B virus is associated with the appearance in the blood of all of the following except:
a-Hepatitis B antibody

 b-Hepatitis B surface antigen
c-The Dane particle

d-DNA polymerase activity
Ans-A


108-Earliest changes of neoplastic transformation as seen at a microscopic level is called:
a-Hyperplasia b-Metaplaisa
c-Dyplasia d-Carcinoma in sutu
Ans-C


109-The best guide to adequate tissue perfusion in the fluid management of a patient with burns, is to ensure a minimum hourly urine output of:
a-10-30 ml b-30-50 ml 
c-50-70 ml d-70-100 ml
Ans-B


110-Example of indirect traumatic gangrene are all except:
a-Use of local anaesthetic with adrenaline and tourniquet for digits
b-Pressure of fractured bone on main artery to a limb
c-Thrombosis of large artery following injury
d-That resulting from crush or pressure injury
Ans-A


111-Axillary vein thrombosis is NOT a complication of :
a-Throracic outlet syndrome

b-Simple mastectomy 
c-Excessive upper limb exercise d-Strap-hangers
Ans-B


112-The four points of probe placement in Focuced Abdominal Sonogram for Trauma (FAST) in blunt thoraco-abdominal trauma are:
a-Epigastrium , R hypochondrium , (L) Lower chest, hypogastrium
b-Epigastrium, R & (L) Hypochondria R Iiiac fossa
c-Epigastrium, r 7 (L) Lumbar regions, hypogastrium 
d-Hypogastrium, r& (L) Lumbar region,R lower chest
Ans-A


113-In the acronym “SWELLING” used for the history and examination of a lumb or swelling , the letter ‘N’ stands for:
a-Nodes b-Noise (Thrill/bruit) 
c-Numbness d-Neurological effects
Ans-B


114-A position Froment’s sign is associated with palsy of which nerve?
a-Median b-Axillary
c-Radial d-Ulnar
Ans-D


115-Acute bactorial sailadenitis is managed by:
a-Immediate sialography
b-Fluid intake restriction
c-Cuture of the FNAC from the involved gland
d-Use of broad spectrum antibiotics 
Ans-D


116-A branchial cyst develops from the vestigial remnants of the :
a-2nd branchial cleft

b-3rd branchial cleft
c-1st branchial cleft

d-4th branchial cleft
Ans-A


117-About follicular carcinoma of the thyroid gland:
a-FNAC is diagnostic
b-Lymph node metasteses are common
c-Distant metastases are more common
d-Local recurrence rates are low
Ans-C

118-Poland’s syndrome of the congenital absence of the sternal head of the pestoralis major muscle is associated with:
a-Mastalgia b-Amazia 
c-Polymazia d-Gynecomazia
Ans-B


119-Chest drain insretion is safest when perfomed:
a-In the apex of the chest for pneumothorax
b-In the base of the chest for haemothorax
c-In the ‘triangle of safety’ on the antero-lateral chest wall 
d-With the smallest bore chest tube available
Ans-C


120-Disparity of the bowel ends during end to end anastamosis is corrected by:
a-Cheatle’s manoeuvre b-Connell suture
c-Lembert suture d-Czerny technique
Ans-A


121-Odynophagia is :
a-Throat pain b-Pain on swallowing
c-Heartburn d-Painless dysphagia
ans-B


122-For inoperable gastric neoplasms involving the cardia, the best palliation is by:
a-Intubation b-Exclusion
c-Pre-sternal bypass d-Gastroenterostomy
Ans-A


123-Vascular inflow occlusion of the liver is by:
a-Clambing the hepatic artery b-Occluding the portal vein
c-Clambing the hepatic veins d-The pringle manoeuvre 
Ans-D

124-Splenic abscess is best treated by:
a-Open splenectomy
b-Laparoscopic splectomy
c-Percutaneous drainage under image guidance
d-Antibiotic only
Ans-C

125-“Limey bile” is :
a-Present in the CBD
b-Thin and clear
c-Like toothpaste emulsion in the gall bladder
d-Bacterial rich
Ans-C


126-Myelin around central nervous axons is laid down by:
a-Microglia b-Schwann cells
c-Oligodendrocytes d-Protoplasmic astrocytes
Ans-C


127-Posterior belly of digastric is supplied by:
a-Facial nerve b-Mandibular nerve
c-Spinal accessory nerve d-Ansa cervicalis
Ans-A


128-The paranasal air sinuses opening into the middle meatus include all except:
a-Frontal sinus b-Maxillary sinus
c-Posterior ethmoidal sinus d-Anterior ethmoidal sinus
Ans-C


129-The following are the branches of the internal iliac artery except:
a-Ovarian artery b-Uterine artery
c-Superior vesical artery d-Obturator artery
Ans-A


130-Which one of the followinf is attached to the lingual of the mandible?
a-Stylomandiblar ligament
b-Sphenomandibular ligament
c-Pterygomandibular raphe
d-Middle constrictor of pharynx
Ans-B


131-The distance by which two touch stimuli must be separated to be perceived as two separate stimuli is greatest on:
a-The lips b-The palm of the hand
c-The back of scapula d-The dorsum of the hand
Ans-C


132-The visceral pain:
a-Shows relatively rapid adaption
b-Mediated by ‘B’ fibre in the dorsal root of spinal nerve
c-Can sometimes be relieved by applying an irritant to the SKIN
d-Most closely resemble fast pain produced by naxious stimulation of the SKIN
Ans-C


133-The fourth heart sound is caused by:
a-Closure of aortic and pulmonary orifices
b-Vibration of the ventricular wall during systole
c-Ventricualr filling
d-Closure of mitral and tricuspid orifices
Ans-C

Karnataka 2004 PG paper
134-Lymphocytes:
a-All originate from bone marrow after birth
b-Are unaffected by harmone
c-Converted to monocytes in response to antigens
d-Are part of body’s defence against cancer
Ans-D

135-Which of the follwing has the highest pH?
a-Gastric juice b-Bile in the gallbladder
c-Pancreatic juice d-Saliva
Ans-C


136-The concentration of sphingomyelins are increased in:
a-Gauche’s disease b-Fabry’s disease
c-Febrile disease d-Niemann-Pck disease 
Ans-D


137-Salivary amylase is activated by:
a-Na+ b-K+
c-HCO3- d-Cl- 
Ans-D


138-Glucose increase plasma insuline by a process that invoves:
a-GLVT1 b-GLVT2 
c-GLVT3 d-SGLT1
Ans-B


139-In the body, metabolism of 10 gms. of protein would produce approximately:
a-1 K calorie b-41 K calories
c-410 K calories d-41 calories
Ans-B


140-Refsum’s disease is a rere neurological disorser caused by:
a-Accumulation of glutamic acid
b-Accumulation of glycine
c-Accumulation of phytanic acid
d-Accumulation of phnylalanine
And-C


141-The term physical half life is applicable to:
a-Repository preparations b-Prodrugs
c-Radioactive isotopes d-Alkylating agents
Ans-C


142-The antiretroviral drug which is also effective in chronic active hepatitia-B infection is:
a-Zidovudine b-Nelfinavir
c-Efavirenz d-Procarbazine
Ans-D


143-The drug of choice of  chronic myeloid leukaemia is:
a-Chlorambucil b-Busulfan 
c-Vincristine d-Procarbazine
Ans-B


144-Which of the follwing antipileptic drug does not produce Hepatic Micromosomal enzyme induction?
a-Phenobarbitone b-Carbamazepine
c-phenytoin d-Sodium valproate
Ans-D 

145-The antithyroid drug preferred for use during pregnancy and lactation is:
a-Propylthiouracil b-Methimazole
c-Carbimazole d-Radioactive iodine
Ans-A


146-The antibiotic known to cause “Red Man’s “ syndrome is:
a-clindamycin b-Cefadroxil
c-Vancomycin d-Azithromycin
Ans-C


147-The local anaethetic known to cause Methaemoglobinaemia as adverse effect is :
a-Lidocaine b-Bupivacaine
c-Tetracaine d-Prilocaine 
Ans-D


148-Which of the following skeletal muscle relaxants undergoes Hoffmann elimination?
a-Pancuronium b-Rocuronium
c-Atracurium d-Succinyl choline
Ans-C


149-Which of the follwing antitubercular drugs does not cause hepatotoxicity?
a-Isoniazid b-Ethambutol 
c-Pyrazinamide d-rifampicin
Ans-B

150-The betablocker having intrinsic sympathomimetic activity is:
a-Propronolol b-Atenolol
c-Sotalol d-Pindolol 
Ans-D

151-Myasthenia gravis may be associated with
a-Thymoma b- Systematic LUPUS erythematosus
c-Hyperthyroidism d-All of the above
Ans-D

152-Example of PRION disease include:
a-Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease b-Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
c-Alzheimer’s disease d-None of the above
Ans-A


153-The treatment of Herpes simplex viral encephalitis should include:
a-Zidovudine b-Acyclovir 
c-Didanosine d-Symptomatic treatment only
Ans-B


154-The drug found to be beneficial in amytrophic lateral sclerosis is:
a-Riluzole b-Methylprednisolone
c-Hydroxyurea d-None of the above
Ans-A


155-The drug of choice for a patient with a combination of primary generalized tonic-clonic seizures and absence seizures is:
a-Ethosuximide b-Carbamazepine
c-Valproic acid d-Phenytoin sodium
Ans-C


156-Complication of Paget’s disease include:
a-High output cardiac failure b-Osteogenic sarcoma
c-Pathologic fractures d-All of the above 
Ans-D


157-Causes of Rickets include:
a-Dietary phosphate deficiency
b-Distal renal tubular acidosis
c-Small intestinal disease with malabsoption
d-All of the above
Ans-D


158-Causes of hypercalcemia include:
a-Hyperthyroidism b-Hypothyroidism
c-Hypoparathyroidism d-None of the above
Ans-A


159-Drugs useful in the treatment of acute gouty arthritis include:
a-Allopurinol b-Colchicine 
c-Probenicid d-Sulfinpyrazone
Ans-B


160-Drugs considered safe in patients with acute intermittent porphyria include:
a-Phenobarbitone b-Valproic acid
c-Carbamazepine d-Narcotic analgesics 
Ans-D


161-The level of LDL cholestrol at which therapy should be intiated in a aotient without coronary artery disease and no risk factor is:
a-100 mg/ dL

b-130 mg/ dL
c-160 mg/ dL

d-190 mg / dL
Ans-C, D


162-The most common karyotypic abnormality associated with Turner syndrome is :
a-45, X b-46, XY
c-47, XXY d-45, Y
Ans-A


163-Insulin resistance is defined as a daily requirement of insulin greater than:
a-100 units b-150 units
c-200 units d-250 units
Ans-C


164-The treatment of choice for hypertension in a patient with phaeochromocytoma:
a-Alpha adrenergic blocking agents
b-Beta adrenergic blocking agents
c-Calcium channel blockers
d-Angiotensin receptor blockers
Ans-A


165-Nelson’s syndrome is a complication of:
a-Unilateral adrenalectomy for Cushing’s syndrome
b-Bilateral adrenalectomy for bilateral adrenal hyperplasia
c-Excision of a pituitary tumor for bilateral adrenal hyperlasia
d-Excision of a hypothalamic tumor for bilateral adrenal hyperplasia
Ans-B


166-The electrolyte abnormality typical seen in primary aldosteronism is:
a-Hypokalemia b-Hyperkalemia
c-Hyponatremia d-Hypernatremia
Ans-A


167-The feature of subacute thyroiditis include:
a-Elevated T3 & T4 levels b-Depressed TSH levels
c-Depressed RAIU d-All of the above
Ans-D


168-SIADH typical causes:
a-Hypernatremia and a urinary osmolality300 mmol/Kg
c-Hyponatremia & a urinary osmollity300 mmol/Kg
Ans-D


169- The most common manifestations in Takayasu’s arteritis are related to
occlusion of:
a-Abdominal aorta b-Renal arteries
c-Subclavian arteries d-Pulmonary arteries
Ans-C


170-Nucleoside analogues used in the treatment of HIV infection include:
a-Indinavir b-Nevirapine
c-Didanosine d-Efavirenz
Ans-C


171-Drugs used in the treatment of pneumocystis carinii pneumonia include:
a-Trimethoprin-sulfamethoxazole b-Dapsone
c-Clindamycin d-All of the above
Ans-D


172-Drugs useful in the treatment of chronic hepatitis C include:
a-Glucocorticoids b-Interferon alpha 
c-hydroxyurea d-None of the above
Ans-B


173-Finding suggestive of an obstructive jaundice on a liver function test is a marked elevation of:
a-Unconjugated bilirubin b-Conjugated bilirubin
c-Alkaline phosphatase d-AST and ALT
Ans-C


174-An abnormal D-xylase test is suggestive of:
a-Pancreatic insufficiency
b-Hepatic insufficiency
c-A mucosal abnormality of proximal small intestine
d-Colonic disease
Ans-C


175-In a patient with hypoxemia the finding suggestive of hypoventilation on an arterial blood gas analysis is:
a-Elevated PaCO2 b-Decreased PaCO2
c-Elavated pH d-None of t he above
Ans-A


176-PQLI stands for:
a-Physical quality of life index
b-Physical quantity of life index
c-Physiological quality of life index
d-Psychological quality of life index
Ans-A


177-Mean, Medium and Mode are:
a-Measure of dispersion
b-Measure association between two variables
c-Test of significance
d-Measure of central tendency
Ans-D


178-Incidence rate refers to:
a-Only old cases b-Both old and new cases
c-Only new cases d-None of the above
Ans-C


179-Generation time in epidemiology id defined as:
a-The interval between marriage and the birth of first child
b-The interval of time between the receipt of infection by host and maximal infectivity of the host
c-The interval of time between primary case and secondry cases
d-Interval of time between invasion by infection agent and appearance of first sign or symprom of the disease/ in question
Ans-B

180-In the demographic cycle, India is in the :
a-High stationary stage b-Early expanding stage
c-Late expanding stage d-Low stationary stage
Ans-C

181-The overall prevalence of tuberculosis infection in India as per 4th round of longitudinal survey was:
a-20% b-30% 
c-40% d-50%
Ans-B


182-Pulse polio immunization is administration of OPV to:
a-All children between 0-5 years of age on a single day, irrespective of their previous immunization status
b-Children in the age group of 0-1 year only who have not been immunized earlier
c-Children in the age group of 12-24 months only,as the booster dose
d-All children between 0-5 years of sge, whenever there is an outbreak of poliomyelitis
Ans-A


183-In high risk areas the radical treatment for plasmodium vivax infection after microscopic confermation is administration of tablets primaquine in the daily dosage of:
a-0.25 mg/Kg body weight

b-0.50 mg/Kg body weight
c-0.75 mg/Kg body weight c-1.00 mg/Kg body weight
Ans-A


184-Couple protection rate in India is:
a-30.8 % b-46.2% 
b-62.4% d-85.7%
Ans-B


185-By international agreement , low birth weight has been defined as a birth weight when measured within the first hour of life is:
a-Less than 2000 grams b-Less than 2500 grams 
c-Less than 2800 grams d-Less than 3000 grams
Ans-B


186-For an adult Indian male the daily requirement of protein is expressed as:
a-0.5 gms/ Kg body weight

b-0.75 gms/Kg body weight
c-1.0 gms/ Kg body weight

 d-1.50 gms/Kg body weight
Ans-C


187-Lathyrism is due to consumption of :
a-Red gram dhal b-Contaminated ground nuts
c-Bengal gram dhal d-Khesari dhal 
Ans-D


188-Temporary hardness of water is due to presence of :
a-Bicarbonates of calcium and magnesium 
b-Chlorides of calcium and magnesium
c-Nitrates of calcium and magnesium
d-Oxides of calcium and magnesium
Ans-A


189-Kata thermometer measures:
a-Air temperature only
b-Air temperature and humidity
c-Air temperature humidity & air movement
d-None of the above
Ans-C

190-The optimum floor space recommended per adult person in a dwelling place is:
a-50-100 sq. ft. b-101-150 sq.ft.
c-151-200 sq.ft. d-201-250 sq. ft.
Ans-A

191-An upper limit of noise which people can tolerate without sub damage to their hearing is:
a-45 db b-65 db
c- 85 db d- 105 db
Ans-C


192-The permissible dose of amn made radiation should not exceed:
a-3 rads per year b-5 rads per year 
c-8 rads per year d-10 rads per year
Ans-B


193-The mean radiant temperature is measured by:
a-Dry bulb thermometer
b-Wet bulb thermometer
c-six’s maximum and minimum thermometer
Ans-D


194-Following latrines are suitable for camps and temporary use except:
a-Shollow trench latrine b- Pit latrine
c-Borehole latrine d-Septic tank
Ans-D


195-Sand fly transmit the following disease except:
a-Relapsing fever b-Kala azar
c-Sand- fly fever d-Oraya fever
Ans-A


196-The following drugs cause methemoglobinemia:
a-Aniline b-Dapsone
c-Nitrates d-All of the above
Ans-D 


197-The following drugs are useful in the treatment of isonized poisoning:
a-Pyridoxine b-Diazepam
c-Bicarbonate d-All of the above 
Ans-D


198-Gastric lavage is contraindicated in the following :
a-Barbiturate poisoning

b-Kerosene poisoning 
c-Paracetamol poisoning

d-None of the above
Ans-B


199-The following is not a feature of Wernicke’s encephalopathy:
a-Lateral rectus palsy b-Paralysis of conjugate dominant
c-Pupilary dilation d-Nystagmus
Ans-C

200-The inheritance in Dechenne muscular dystrophy is:
a-X- linked recessive b-Autosomal dominant
c-Autosomal recessive d-Polygenic
Ans-A"

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