1-All of the following are chromosomal breakage syndrome except: a-Fanconi’s anaemia b-Ehlers-Danlossyndrome c-Bloom syndrome d-Ataxia telengiectasia Ans-B
2- All of the following are morphologic feature of apoptosis except: a-Cell shrinkage b-Chromatin condensation c-Inflammationd-Apoptotic bodies Ans-C
3-“Macropolycyte “ in peripheral smear is a feature of: a-Hereditary spherocytosis b-Iron deficiency anaemia c-Sickle ceel anaemia d-Megaloblastic anaemia Ans-D
4-Most common second malignancy in patients with FAMILIAL Retinoblastoma is: a-Teretoma b-Medullary carcinoma c-Osteosarcomad-Malignant melanoma Ans-C
6-Histologic hallmark of rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis is: a-Crescent in most of the glomeruli b-Loss of foot process of epithelial cells c-Subendothelial dence deposites d-Diffuse thickening of glomerular capillary wall Ans-A
7-All of the following are true for complete mole except: a-Diffuse circumferential trophoblastic proliferation b-Hydropic swelling of villi c-No fetal parts seen d-Triploid karyotype(seen in partial mole) Ans-D
8-Histologic hallmark of paget disease of nipple is: a-Comedo necrosis b-Infiltration of the epidermis by malignant cells c-Atypical lobular hyperplasia d-Desmoplasia Ans-B
9-In early gastric carcinoma malignancy is confined to: a-Mucosa b-Mucosa and submucosa c-Gastric wall without lymphnode metaasis d-Gastric glands Ans-B
Early gastric cancer (T1 or 2, N0/1, P0, H0)
Suitable for attempted curative resection if the patient is medically fit enough.
Surgery is simple or radical gastrectomy.
Local resection or ablation has an uncertain place in treatment.
Advanced gastric cancer (T3 or more or any of N2/P1+/H1+)
Surgical intervention very unlikely to be curative. May be undertaken for palliative treatment.
Local ablation for symptom control occasionally possible.
Palliative chemotherapy occasionally effective for disseminated disease.
Table 7.1 TNM staging of gastric cancers
T (tumour)
N (nodes)
M (metastases)
Tis, in situ within mucosa
N0, no lymph nodes
P (peritoneal metastases)
T1, confined to submucosa
N1, involved nodes within 3cm of primary
P0, no peritoneal metastases
T2, confined to muscle wall
N2, involved nodes more than 3cm from primary
P1/2/3, peritoneal metastases in increasing extent
T3, involvement of serosal surface
H (hepatic metastases)
T4, involvement of other organs
H0, no hepatic metastases
H1/2/3, hepatic metastases in increasing extent
10-Which hepatitis virus is notorious for causing a chronic hepatitis evolving cirrhosis? a-Hepatitis C virusb-Hepatitis B virus c-Hepatitis E virus d-Cytomegalo virus Ans-A
11-Example of type IV hypersensitivity: a-Coagulase test b-Mantoux test c-Schick test d-Elek’s test Ans-B
12-Recommended vaccines for rabies: a-DPT b-MMR c-BCG d-HDCVAns-D
13-Pigment producing colonies are seen in: a-Pseudomonas b-Atypical mycobacteria c-Serratia marcescensd-All of the above Ans-D
14-Flurescent microscopy is used to diagnose: a-Mycobacterium tuberculosisb-Staphylococcus aureus c-Streptococcus capsulatum d-Klebsilla aerogenes Ans-A
15-Germ tube test is diagnosis for: a-Candida albicansb-Cryptococcus neoformans c-Histoplasma capsulatum d-Coccidiodomycosis Ans-A
Agerm tube testis a diagnostic test in which a sample of fungal spores are suspended in serum and examined by microscopy for the detection of any germ tubes.[2] It is particularly indicated for colonies of white or cream color on fungal culture, where a positive germ tube test is strongly indicative of Candida albicans.[2]
16-pH of sabouraud’s dextrose agar is adjusted to: a-4-6b-1-2 c-6-8 d-8-10 Ans-A
17-Painless hematuria is seen in: a-Schistostoma hematobiumb-Schistostoma mansoni c-Schistostoma japonicum d-Paragonium westermani Ans-A
18-Babesoisis is transmitted by: a-Tickb-Mites c-flea d-Mosquito Ans-A
20-Complication in Malaria are commonly seen with: a-Plasmodium ovale b-Plasmodium vivax c-Plasmodium falciparumd-Plasmodium malariae Ans-C
21-Type III category of basal FRACTURE of skull are: a-Those that run in the coronal plane from lateral end of one petrous through sella turcica to lateralend of contralateral petrous ridge b-Run from side to side in the coronal plane but do not pass through the sellaturcica c-Run from front to the contralateral back passing through the sella turcica d-Run from front to back involving all cranial fossae & sella turcica . Ans-B
22-The various component of a will to be valid are: a-A knowledge of the property to be disposed of b-A legatee can attest a will c-Presence of delusion not affecting in any way the disposal of the property or the person affected by the will d-It should be made during lucid interval Ans-?
23-Reasons for marked variation in the shape of exit wounds of rifled weapons: a-Deformation of bullet during its passage through body and thereby presenting an irregular wound b-Absence of tumbling of the bullet in the body & hence it may not be able to exit with nose end first c-Intact bullet in the body after striking bone d-At times , both entry and exit wounds are of the same as in the assassination of kennedy , President of USA Ans-A
24-“Dry Submarine “ in custodial torture injuries refer to: a-Falanga beating on soles of feet b-Tying of a plastic bag over the ears c-Immersing head in contaminated water d-Suspending the accused by ankles Ans-B
25-“CAFÉ coronary “ refer to death in intoxication person during meals due to : a-Suffocation b-Natural cardiac death c-Chokingd-Smothening Ans-C
26-The single test that confirms the diagnosis of autoimmune hemolytic anaemia is: a-Coombs testb-Reticulocyte count c-Peripheral smear d-Hemoglobin electrophoresis Ans-A
27-The advantage of breast feeding to the mother includes: a-Decrease postpartum bleeding b-Prevention of breast cancer c-Spacing of pregnancies d-All of the above Ans-D
28-All these condition can produce metabolic acidosis except: a-Diabetic ketoacidosis b-Salicylate poisoning c-Gastroenteritis with dehydration d-Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis Ans-D
29-All these condition are autosomal dominant disorders except: a-Marfan’s syndrome
b-Hunter syndrome c-Osteogenesis imperfecta
d-Achondroplasia Ans-B
30-All these conditions can produce first day jaundice in newborn except: a-RH incompatibility b-TORCH infection c-Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosisd-G6PD deficiency Ans-C
31-Infantile hemiplegia can occur due to cerebrovascular accidents resulting in: a-Thrombosis b-Embolism c-Staphylococcid-All of the above Ans-D
32-Common cause for epiglottitis in children is due to : a-Hemiphilus influenzab-Pneumococci c-Staphylococci d-Strepyococci Ans-A
33-The cause for anoxic spells in children include all except: a-Tranposition of great vessels b-Tricuspid artresia c-total anomalous muscular venous return d-Coarctation of aorta Ans-D
34-Gower sign is classical of one of the following condition: a-Congenital myopathy b-Werdnig-Hoffman disease c-Duchenne muscular muscular dystrophyd-Guillain-Barre syndrome Ans-C
35-All these condition are SEX chromosome disorder except: a-Turner syndrome b-Kline filter syndrome c-Super femaled-Down’s syndrome Ans-D
36-Thought disorder is seen in: a-Obsessive compulsive disorder b-Anxiety neurosis c-Schizophreniad-Psychopathic personality Ans-A,C
37-Repetative hand washing is symptom of; a-Posy-traumatic stress disorder b-Depression c-Anorexia nervosad-Obsessive compulsive disorder Ans-D
38-Clozapine is a: a-Atypical anti-psychotic drugb-Anti-anxiety drug c-Used in dementia d-Also known as disulfiram Ans-A
39-Flouxetine is a : a-Anti- psychotic drug b-Used in opiate poisoning c-Tricyclic antidepressantd-Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor Ans-D
40-Fluctuating level of consciousness is seen in: a-Hysteriab-Delirium c-Dementia d-Mania Ans-B
41-After oral ingection of 8- methyoxypsoralen , how long an interval should be allowed before UVA radiation is given in PUVA treatment? a-1 hrb-2 hr c-3 hr d-4hr Ans-B
42-Which positive test does not necessarily indicate HIV infection in a newborn? a-ELISA for HIV IgG antibody
b-p24 antigen c-Virus culture d-ELISA for HIV IgA antibody Ans-A
43-Each of the following is caused by a pathogen of a Borrelia species , except: a-Erythema chronicum migrans
44-Which of the following may occur either as a result of an elevated antrogen level or an exaggerated clinical response of tissues to androgen? a-Acne b-Hirsutism c-Alopeciad-All of these Ans-D
45-Which of the following is found least frequently in patients with TEN (Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis)? a-Anamia (erythrocytic) b-Lymphopenia c-Neutropeniad-Eosinophilia Ans-D
46-The target material used in X –ray tube: a-Tinb-Tungsten c-Platinum d-Copper Ans-B
47-The following are radiological features of sigmoid vovulus except: a-Inverted U shaped bowel loop b-liver overlap sign c-Bird of prey signd-Cupola sign Ans-D
48-Medical sonography employs ultrasound frequency between: a-1-2 MHz
b-Less than 1 MHz c-100 Hz
d-Greater than 100 MHz Ans-A
49-Colour Doppler study can evaluate the following except: a-Direction of blood flow b-Velocity of blood flow c-Impedence indexd-Intravascular pressure Ans-D
50-The Radionuclide used in assessing the renal morphology: a-Thallium-201
b-99mTc-DMSA(for morp) c-99mT-DTPA (for function)
d-99mTc-MAG Ans-B
51-In Ranson’s criteria to predict severity of acute pancreatitis: a-A serum amylase that is 4 times normal is significant b-Serum amylase level is not a a criteria c-Rising serum amylase level are important d-Serum amylase equals urine amylase Ans-B
Glasgow Imrie criteria
3 or more positive criteria within 48h of admission = severe attack
53-The operative wound after surgery for gangrenous , perforated appendicitis is best managed by: a-Primary sutureb-Delayed primary closure c-Healing by secondry intention d-Antibiotic lavage Ans-B
54-A thrombosed external haemorrhoid ( or perianal haematoma ) is: a-Painless, with gradual onset
b-The 5 days , painful , self curing lesion c-Part of internal haemorrhoids
d-A sentinel pile Ans-B
55-The ratio of males to female in the incidence of strangulated inguinal hernia in infancy is : a-5:1 b-1:2 c-2:1d-1:5 Ans-D
56-Treatment of intracapsular FRACTURE in a man aged 60 years: a-Dynamic hip screw fixation b-Total hip replacement c-Hemiarthroplastyd-Austin Moore pinning Ans-C
57-Barlows test is done to diagnose: a-C.D.H.b-Cruciate ligament tear c-Shoulder dislocation d-Ankle joint instability Ans-A
58-Osteochondritis of lunate bone is known as: a-Perthes disease b-Osgood schlatters disease c-Kohler’s diseased-Kienbock’s disease Ans-D
59-Spine ventosa is caused by: a-Leprosy b-Defect in the spine c-Tuberculosisd-Gout Ans-C
60-Calcification of inter vertebral disc is a feature of: a-Ankylosing spondilitis
b-Hyper parathyroidis c-Charcot’s disease
d-Alkaptonuria Ans-D
61-Tom Smith’s arthritis of hip joint is due to: a-C.D.H. b-Post polio c-Pyogenic infectiond-Cerebral palsy Ans-C
63-Reversal of albumin-globulin ratio is seen in: a-Osteochondromab-Multiple myeloma c-Osteoclastoma d-Osteoid osteoma Ans-B
64-Treatment of bone cyct; a-Amputationb-Bone grafting c-Chemotheraphy d-Disarticulation Ans-B
65-Osteochondroma is also known : a-Exostosisb-Gaint cell tumour c-Ivary osteoma d-Osteoblastoma Ans-A
66-Oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve is shifted to the right in the following condition: a-Acidosis b-Increase 2-3 DPG level c-Hyperthermiad-All the above Ans-D
Hemoglobin binding curve: causes of shift to right Hi Yield [ID 2561]
"CADET, faceright!":
CO2
Acid
2,3-DPG (aka 2,3 BPG)
Exercise
Temperature
67-Following are the effects of thiopentose sodium anaethesis except: a-Respiratory depression b-Reduced cardiac output c-Good uterine relaxationd-Low intraocular tension Ans-C
69-Blood collected from acid citrate dextrose can be stored for: a-28 daysb-21 days c-14 days d-7 days Ans-B
70-Advantages of regional analgesia blockade are all these except: a-A reduced need for opioids b-Early resumption for normal activity and ambulation c-A quick awakening from general anaesthesis d-Increase of the stress response Ans-D
71-Corneal manifestation of Wilson’s disease is : a-Fleischer Ring b-Arcus Juvenilis c-Keyser Fleischer Ringd-Band Keratopathy Ans-C
72-Diabetic retinopathy causes : a-Traction Retinal Detachment b-Neovascular glaucoma c-Vitreos haemorrhaged-All of the above Ans-D
73-Giant Papillary Conjunctivitis is caused by: a-Contact Lens wear b-Ocular Prosthesis c-Protruding corneal suturesd-All of the above Ans-D
74-Ethambutol toxicity leads to : a-Steven Johnson syndrome b-Pupillary dilatation c-Visual loss with colour vision defects d-Bull’s eye retinopathy (chloroquine) Ans-C
75- Field defect seen in papilledema a-Seidel’s scotoma b-Constriction of peripheral fields c-Centro-caecal scotoma d-None of the above. Ans-
76- Dysphagia for fluids but not to solids is seen in : a-Stricture b-Achalasia(hellers myotomy) c-Carcinoma oesophagus d-Reflux oesopagitis Ans-B
77-Epistaxia in elderly person is common in: a-Foreign body b-Allergic rhinitis c-Hypertensiond-Nasopharyngeal carcinoma Ans-C
78-Cerebello pontine angle tumour is most commonly: a-Acoustic neuromab-Cholesteatoma c-Meningioma d-All of the above Ans-A
79-Gradenigo’s syndrome does not consist of: a-Abduscent nerve palsyb-Palatal palsy c-Aural discha d-Retro orbital pain Ans-B
80-Early symptoms of carcinoma larynx: a-Dysphagia b-Cough c-Haemoptysis d-Hoarseness of voice Ans-D
81-Physiologically, oxytocin is characterized by all except: a-Circulates entirely in free form b-Plasma half life 5-7 minutes c-Level increase during labor d-Released in pulsatile fashion Ans-C
82-Studies have indicated the most important of the components of the Bishop score to be that related to: a-Dilatationb-Effacement c-Station d-Consistency Ans-A
Karnataka 2004 PREPG with answers 83-The factor that is likely to influence the rate of relapce and prognosis in patients with ovarian cancer is: a-Tumor grade b-Tumor stage c-Intraoperative Rupture of tumord-Presence of dence adhesion Ans-C
84-Most common symptom associatd with uterine myomas: a-Menorrhagiab-Metrorrhagia c-Pressure d-Urinary frequency Ans-A
85-How much is the risk of ovarian cancer increased above normal in a women with nonautosomal dominant genotype with one first degree related with ovarian cancer: a-2-3 timesb-5 times c-10 times d-20 times Ans-A
86-What is the most common method for detecting early stage ovarian cancer? a-Evaluaation of vague gastrointestinal symtomss b-Palpation of an asymptomatic mass during routine pelvic examination c-Screening CA 125 d-Screening vaginal ultrasound Ans-B
87-Which ultrasound finding with an adnexal mass is most suspicious for malignancy? a-8 cm in diameterb-Several internal excrescences c-Cyctic with two thin septations d-Freee pelvic fluid Ans-B
88-The most common major complication with Laparoscopic hysterectomy is: a-Urinary tract injuryb-Bowel injury c-Uncontrolled bleeding d-Pulmonary embolus Ans-A
89-The patient with pre-eclampsia diagnosed remote from term, which of the following is NOT necessarily an indication for expeditious delivery: a-Blood Pressure 170/115 on medication b-Proteinuria 5g per 24 hours c-Platelet count 80,000/ul d-Serum transaminase levels three times normal Ans-B
90-Independent risk factors for pre-eclampsia include all except: a-hyper homocycteinemiab-Race c-Number of partners d-Family history Ans-B
91-Pregnancy- associated risk factor for pre-eclampsia include all except: a-Rh Incompatibilityb-Multiple pregnancy c-Fetal structural abnormalities d-trisomy 13 Ans-A
92-The severity of pelvic pain in patients with endometriosis correlated best with: a-Number of implantsb-Depth of invasion of lesions c-Type of lesions d-stage of disease Ans-B
93-accepted indication for Assisted Reproductive Technologies (ART) in endometriosis patients include all of the following except: a-Advanced disease
b-At least one year of infertility c-Multifactorial infertility
d-Advanced disease Ans-B
94-The data are most convincing for which theory as the pathogenesis of endometriosis in the peritoneal cavity: a-Coelomic metaplasia b-Induction c-Embryonic restsd-Lymphatic & vascular metastasis Ans-C
95-Endometroisis has been found in all of the following location except: a-spleenb-Central Nervous system b-Extremities d-Pancreas Ans-A
96-controlled ovarian hyperstimulation as a treatment for infertility is most useful in which patient: a-Women with premature ovarian failure b-Women undergoing cancer therapy c-Couples undergoing artificial insemination Ans-C
97-The formation of primordial follicle in human fetus is completed by: a-4 weeks b-8 weeks c-13 weeksd-18 weeks Ans-D
98-During pregnancy there is an increased respiratory sensitivity to Carbon dioxide due to higher circulating level of: a-Progesteroneb-Estrogen c-Estriol d-Prolactin Ans-A
99-An effective and safe treatment for recurrent lag cramps in the second half of pregnancy is: a-Vitamin C b-Vitamin D c-Acetaminophen d-Calcium 1 gm. Twice daily for 2 weeks Ans-D
100-The Ureter: a-Crosses superior to the uterine artery in the Broad ligament b-Derives its sympathetic nerve supply from the 2nd and 3rd lumbar nerve roots c-Is widest at the pelvic ureteric junction d-Derives its blood supply entirely from the renal and superior vesical arteries Ans-B
101-Who said these words: “To study phenomenon of disease without books is to sail an uncharted sea, while to study without patients is not to go to sea at all” a-Hamilton Bailey b-Sir Robert Hutchison c-Sir William Oslerd-J.B.Murphy Ans-C
102-T1 & T2 images are a feature of which diagnostic test? a-Ultrasound b-C. T. scan c-Duplex scand-MRI scan Ans-d
103-Who said: “SKIN is the best dressing? a-Joseph Listerb-John Hunter c-James Paget d-McNeill Love Ans-A
104-How do you get an ideal scar? a-Achieve quite, secondry healing b-Ensure tight closure of the SKIN c-Give antibioticsd-Minimize tension Ans-D
105-Hypokalemic alkalosis is commonly seen in surgical wards in: a-Excessive absorption of alkali b-Excessive vomiting in pyloric stenosis c-Eessive steroid use d-Diarrhoea with dehydration Ans-B
106-5% dextrose in normal saline is : a-Hypotonicb-Isotonic c-Hypertonic d-A blood substitute Ans-B
107-Infection with Hepatitis B virus is associated with the appearance in the blood of all of the following except: a-Hepatitis B antibody
b-Hepatitis B surface antigen c-The Dane particle
d-DNA polymerase activity Ans-A
108-Earliest changes of neoplastic transformation as seen at a microscopic level is called: a-Hyperplasia b-Metaplaisa c-Dyplasiad-Carcinoma in sutu Ans-C
109-The best guide to adequate tissue perfusion in the fluid management of a patient with burns, is to ensure a minimum hourly urine output of: a-10-30 mlb-30-50 ml c-50-70 ml d-70-100 ml Ans-B
110-Example of indirect traumatic gangrene are all except: a-Use of local anaesthetic with adrenaline and tourniquet for digits b-Pressure of fractured bone on main artery to a limb c-Thrombosis of large artery following injury d-That resulting from crush or pressure injury Ans-A
111-Axillary vein thrombosis is NOT a complication of : a-Throracic outlet syndrome
112-The four points of probe placement in Focuced Abdominal Sonogram for Trauma (FAST) in blunt thoraco-abdominal trauma are: a-Epigastrium , R hypochondrium , (L) Lower chest, hypogastrium b-Epigastrium, R & (L) Hypochondria R Iiiac fossa c-Epigastrium, r 7 (L) Lumbar regions, hypogastrium d-Hypogastrium, r& (L) Lumbar region,R lower chest Ans-A
113-In the acronym “SWELLING” used for the history and examination of a lumb or swelling , the letter ‘N’ stands for: a-Nodesb-Noise (Thrill/bruit) c-Numbness d-Neurological effects Ans-B
114-A position Froment’s sign is associated with palsy of which nerve? a-Median b-Axillary c-Radiald-Ulnar Ans-D
115-Acute bactorial sailadenitis is managed by: a-Immediate sialography b-Fluid intake restriction c-Cuture of the FNAC from the involved gland d-Use of broad spectrum antibiotics Ans-D
116-A branchial cyst develops from the vestigial remnants of the : a-2nd branchial cleft
b-3rd branchial cleft c-1st branchial cleft
d-4th branchial cleft Ans-A
117-About follicular carcinoma of the thyroid gland: a-FNAC is diagnostic b-Lymph node metasteses are common c-Distant metastases are more common d-Local recurrence rates are low Ans-C
118-Poland’s syndrome of the congenital absence of the sternal head of the pestoralis major muscle is associated with: a-Mastalgiab-Amazia c-Polymazia d-Gynecomazia Ans-B
119-Chest drain insretion is safest when perfomed: a-In the apex of the chest for pneumothorax b-In the base of the chest for haemothorax c-In the ‘triangle of safety’ on the antero-lateral chest wall d-With the smallest bore chest tube available Ans-C
120-Disparity of the bowel ends during end to end anastamosis is corrected by: a-Cheatle’s manoeuvreb-Connell suture c-Lembert suture d-Czerny technique Ans-A
121-Odynophagia is : a-Throat painb-Pain on swallowing c-Heartburn d-Painless dysphagia ans-B
122-For inoperable gastric neoplasms involving the cardia, the best palliation is by: a-Intubationb-Exclusion c-Pre-sternal bypass d-Gastroenterostomy Ans-A
123-Vascular inflow occlusion of the liver is by: a-Clambing the hepatic artery b-Occluding the portal vein c-Clambing the hepatic veinsd-The pringle manoeuvre Ans-D
124-Splenic abscess is best treated by: a-Open splenectomy b-Laparoscopic splectomy c-Percutaneous drainage under image guidance d-Antibiotic only Ans-C
125-“Limey bile” is : a-Present in the CBD b-Thin and clear c-Like toothpaste emulsion in the gall bladder d-Bacterial rich Ans-C
126-Myelin around central nervous axons is laid down by: a-Microglia b-Schwann cells c-Oligodendrocytesd-Protoplasmic astrocytes Ans-C
127-Posterior belly of digastric is supplied by: a-Facial nerveb-Mandibular nerve c-Spinal accessory nerve d-Ansa cervicalis Ans-A
128-The paranasal air sinuses opening into the middle meatus include all except: a-Frontal sinus b-Maxillary sinus c-Posterior ethmoidal sinusd-Anterior ethmoidal sinus Ans-C
129-The following are the branches of the internal iliac artery except: a-Ovarian arteryb-Uterine artery c-Superior vesical artery d-Obturator artery Ans-A
130-Which one of the followinf is attached to the lingual of the mandible? a-Stylomandiblar ligament b-Sphenomandibular ligament c-Pterygomandibular raphe d-Middle constrictor of pharynx Ans-B
131-The distance by which two touch stimuli must be separated to be perceived as two separate stimuli is greatest on: a-The lips b-The palm of the hand c-The back of scapulad-The dorsum of the hand Ans-C
132-The visceral pain: a-Shows relatively rapid adaption b-Mediated by ‘B’ fibre in the dorsal root of spinal nerve c-Can sometimes be relieved by applying an irritant to the SKIN d-Most closely resemble fast pain produced by naxious stimulation of the SKIN Ans-C
133-The fourth heart sound is caused by: a-Closure of aortic and pulmonary orifices b-Vibration of the ventricular wall during systole c-Ventricualr filling d-Closure of mitral and tricuspid orifices Ans-C
Karnataka 2004 PG paper 134-Lymphocytes: a-All originate from bone marrow after birth b-Are unaffected by harmone c-Converted to monocytes in response to antigens d-Are part of body’s defence against cancer Ans-D
135-Which of the follwing has the highest pH? a-Gastric juice b-Bile in the gallbladder c-Pancreatic juiced-Saliva Ans-C
136-The concentration of sphingomyelins are increased in: a-Gauche’s disease b-Fabry’s disease c-Febrile diseased-Niemann-Pck disease Ans-D
137-Salivary amylase is activated by: a-Na+ b-K+ c-HCO3-d-Cl- Ans-D
138-Glucose increase plasma insuline by a process that invoves: a-GLVT1b-GLVT2 c-GLVT3 d-SGLT1 Ans-B
139-In the body, metabolism of 10 gms. of protein would produce approximately: a-1 K calorieb-41 K calories c-410 K calories d-41 calories Ans-B
140-Refsum’s disease is a rere neurological disorser caused by: a-Accumulation of glutamic acid b-Accumulation of glycine c-Accumulation of phytanic acid d-Accumulation of phnylalanine And-C
141-The term physical half life is applicable to: a-Repository preparations b-Prodrugs c-Radioactive isotopesd-Alkylating agents Ans-C
142-The antiretroviral drug which is also effective in chronic active hepatitia-B infection is: a-Zidovudine b-Nelfinavir c-Efavirenzd-Procarbazine Ans-D
143-The drug of choice of chronic myeloid leukaemia is: a-Chlorambucilb-Busulfan c-Vincristine d-Procarbazine Ans-B
144-Which of the follwing antipileptic drug does not produce Hepatic Micromosomal enzyme induction? a-Phenobarbitone b-Carbamazepine c-phenytoind-Sodium valproate Ans-D
145-The antithyroid drug preferred for use during pregnancy and lactation is: a-Propylthiouracilb-Methimazole c-Carbimazole d-Radioactive iodine Ans-A
146-The antibiotic known to cause “Red Man’s “ syndrome is: a-clindamycin b-Cefadroxil c-Vancomycind-Azithromycin Ans-C
147-The local anaethetic known to cause Methaemoglobinaemia as adverse effect is : a-Lidocaine b-Bupivacaine c-Tetracained-Prilocaine Ans-D
148-Which of the following skeletal muscle relaxants undergoes Hoffmann elimination? a-Pancuronium b-Rocuronium c-Atracuriumd-Succinyl choline Ans-C
149-Which of the follwing antitubercular drugs does not cause hepatotoxicity? a-Isoniazidb-Ethambutol c-Pyrazinamide d-rifampicin Ans-B
150-The betablocker having intrinsic sympathomimetic activity is: a-Propronolol b-Atenolol c-Sotalold-Pindolol Ans-D
151-Myasthenia gravis may be associated with a-Thymoma b- Systematic LUPUS erythematosus c-Hyperthyroidism d-All of the above Ans-D
152-Example of PRION disease include: a-Creutzfeldt-Jakob diseaseb-Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis c-Alzheimer’s disease d-None of the above Ans-A
153-The treatment of Herpes simplex viral encephalitis should include: a-Zidovudineb-Acyclovir c-Didanosine d-Symptomatic treatment only Ans-B
154-The drug found to be beneficial in amytrophic lateral sclerosis is: a-Riluzoleb-Methylprednisolone c-Hydroxyurea d-None of the above Ans-A
155-The drug of choice for a patient with a combination of primary generalized tonic-clonic seizures and absence seizures is: a-Ethosuximide b-Carbamazepine c-Valproic acidd-Phenytoin sodium Ans-C
156-Complication of Paget’s disease include: a-High output cardiac failure b-Osteogenic sarcoma c-Pathologic fracturesd-All of the above Ans-D
157-Causes of Rickets include: a-Dietary phosphate deficiency b-Distal renal tubular acidosis c-Small intestinal disease with malabsoption d-All of the above Ans-D
158-Causes of hypercalcemia include: a-Hyperthyroidismb-Hypothyroidism c-Hypoparathyroidism d-None of the above Ans-A
159-Drugs useful in the treatment of acute gouty arthritis include: a-Allopurinolb-Colchicine c-Probenicid d-Sulfinpyrazone Ans-B
160-Drugs considered safe in patients with acute intermittent porphyria include: a-Phenobarbitone b-Valproic acid c-Carbamazepined-Narcotic analgesics Ans-D
161-The level of LDL cholestrol at which therapy should be intiated in a aotient without coronary artery disease and no risk factor is: a-100 mg/ dL
b-130 mg/ dL c-160 mg/ dL
d-190 mg / dL Ans-C, D
162-The most common karyotypic abnormality associated with Turner syndrome is : a-45, Xb-46, XY c-47, XXY d-45, Y Ans-A
163-Insulin resistance is defined as a daily requirement of insulin greater than: a-100 units b-150 units c-200 unitsd-250 units Ans-C
164-The treatment of choice for hypertension in a patient with phaeochromocytoma: a-Alpha adrenergic blocking agents b-Beta adrenergic blocking agents c-Calcium channel blockers d-Angiotensin receptor blockers Ans-A
165-Nelson’s syndrome is a complication of: a-Unilateral adrenalectomy for Cushing’s syndrome b-Bilateral adrenalectomy for bilateral adrenal hyperplasia c-Excision of a pituitary tumor for bilateral adrenal hyperlasia d-Excision of a hypothalamic tumor for bilateral adrenal hyperplasia Ans-B
166-The electrolyte abnormality typical seen in primary aldosteronism is: a-Hypokalemiab-Hyperkalemia c-Hyponatremia d-Hypernatremia Ans-A
167-The feature of subacute thyroiditis include: a-Elevated T3 & T4 levels b-Depressed TSH levels c-Depressed RAIUd-All of the above Ans-D
168-SIADH typical causes: a-Hypernatremia and a urinary osmolality300 mmol/Kg c-Hyponatremia & a urinary osmollity300 mmol/Kg Ans-D
169- The most common manifestations in Takayasu’s arteritis are related to occlusion of: a-Abdominal aorta b-Renal arteries c-Subclavian arteriesd-Pulmonary arteries Ans-C
170-Nucleoside analogues used in the treatment of HIV infection include: a-Indinavir b-Nevirapine c-Didanosined-Efavirenz Ans-C
171-Drugs used in the treatment of pneumocystis carinii pneumonia include: a-Trimethoprin-sulfamethoxazole b-Dapsone c-Clindamycind-All of the above Ans-D
172-Drugs useful in the treatment of chronic hepatitis C include: a-Glucocorticoidsb-Interferon alpha c-hydroxyurea d-None of the above Ans-B
173-Finding suggestive of an obstructive jaundice on a liver function test is a marked elevation of: a-Unconjugated bilirubin b-Conjugated bilirubin c-Alkaline phosphatased-AST and ALT Ans-C
174-An abnormal D-xylase test is suggestive of: a-Pancreatic insufficiency b-Hepatic insufficiency c-A mucosal abnormality of proximal small intestine d-Colonic disease Ans-C
175-In a patient with hypoxemia the finding suggestive of hypoventilation on an arterial blood gas analysis is: a-Elevated PaCO2b-Decreased PaCO2 c-Elavated pH d-None of t he above Ans-A
176-PQLI stands for: a-Physical quality of life index b-Physical quantity of life index c-Physiological quality of life index d-Psychological quality of life index Ans-A
177-Mean, Medium and Mode are: a-Measure of dispersion b-Measure association between two variables c-Test of significance d-Measure of central tendency Ans-D
178-Incidence rate refers to: a-Only old cases b-Both old and new cases c-Only new casesd-None of the above Ans-C
179-Generation time in epidemiology id defined as: a-The interval between marriage and the birth of first child b-The interval of time between the receipt of infection by host and maximal infectivity of the host c-The interval of time between primary case and secondry cases d-Interval of time between invasion by infection agent and appearance of first sign or symprom of the disease/ in question Ans-B
180-In the demographic cycle, India is in the : a-High stationary stage b-Early expanding stage c-Late expanding staged-Low stationary stage Ans-C
181-The overall prevalence of tuberculosis infection in India as per 4th round of longitudinal survey was: a-20%b-30% c-40% d-50% Ans-B
182-Pulse polio immunization is administration of OPV to: a-All children between 0-5 years of age on a single day, irrespective of their previous immunization status b-Children in the age group of 0-1 year only who have not been immunized earlier c-Children in the age group of 12-24 months only,as the booster dose d-All children between 0-5 years of sge, whenever there is an outbreak of poliomyelitis Ans-A
183-In high risk areas the radical treatment for plasmodium vivax infection after microscopic confermation is administration of tablets primaquine in the daily dosage of: a-0.25 mg/Kg body weight
b-0.50 mg/Kg body weight c-0.75 mg/Kg body weight c-1.00 mg/Kg body weight Ans-A
184-Couple protection rate in India is: a-30.8 %b-46.2% b-62.4% d-85.7% Ans-B
185-By international agreement , low birth weight has been defined as a birth weight when measured within the first hour of life is: a-Less than 2000 gramsb-Less than 2500 grams c-Less than 2800 grams d-Less than 3000 grams Ans-B
186-For an adult Indian male the daily requirement of protein is expressed as: a-0.5 gms/ Kg body weight
b-0.75 gms/Kg body weight c-1.0 gms/ Kg body weight
d-1.50 gms/Kg body weight Ans-C
187-Lathyrism is due to consumption of : a-Red gram dhal b-Contaminated ground nuts c-Bengal gram dhald-Khesari dhal Ans-D
188-Temporary hardness of water is due to presence of : a-Bicarbonates of calcium and magnesium b-Chlorides of calcium and magnesium c-Nitrates of calcium and magnesium d-Oxides of calcium and magnesium Ans-A
189-Kata thermometer measures: a-Air temperature only b-Air temperature and humidity c-Air temperature humidity & air movement d-None of the above Ans-C
190-The optimum floor space recommended per adult person in a dwelling place is: a-50-100 sq. ft.b-101-150 sq.ft. c-151-200 sq.ft. d-201-250 sq. ft. Ans-A
191-An upper limit of noise which people can tolerate without sub damage to their hearing is: a-45 db b-65 db c- 85 dbd- 105 db Ans-C
192-The permissible dose of amn made radiation should not exceed: a-3 rads per yearb-5 rads per year c-8 rads per year d-10 rads per year Ans-B
193-The mean radiant temperature is measured by: a-Dry bulb thermometer b-Wet bulb thermometer c-six’s maximum and minimum thermometer Ans-D
194-Following latrines are suitable for camps and temporary use except: a-Shollow trench latrine b- Pit latrine c-Borehole latrined-Septic tank Ans-D
195-Sand fly transmit the following disease except: a-Relapsing feverb-Kala azar c-Sand- fly fever d-Oraya fever Ans-A
196-The following drugs cause methemoglobinemia: a-Aniline b-Dapsone c-Nitratesd-All of the above Ans-D
197-The following drugs are useful in the treatment of isonized poisoning: a-Pyridoxine b-Diazepam c-Bicarbonated-All of the above Ans-D
198-Gastric lavage is contraindicated in the following : a-Barbiturate poisoning
b-Kerosene poisoning c-Paracetamol poisoning
d-None of the above Ans-B
199-The following is not a feature of Wernicke’s encephalopathy: a-Lateral rectus palsy b-Paralysis of conjugate dominant c-Pupilary dilationd-Nystagmus Ans-C
200-The inheritance in Dechenne muscular dystrophy is: a-X- linked recessiveb-Autosomal dominant c-Autosomal recessive d-Polygenic Ans-A"