Karnataka 2004 pg entrance Exam with answers

Download 261.89 Kb.
Size261.89 Kb.
Karnataka 2004 PG entrance Exam with answers



1-All of the following are chromosomal breakage syndrome except:
a-Fanconi’s anaemia b-Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
c-Bloom syndrome d-Ataxia telengiectasia

2- All of the following are morphologic feature of apoptosis except:
a-Cell shrinkage b-Chromatin condensation
c-Inflammation d-Apoptotic bodies

3-“Macropolycyte “ in peripheral smear is a feature of:
a-Hereditary spherocytosis b-Iron deficiency anaemia
c-Sickle ceel anaemia d-Megaloblastic anaemia 

4-Most common second malignancy in patients with FAMILIAL Retinoblastoma is:
a-Teretoma b-Medullary carcinoma
c-Osteosarcoma d-Malignant melanoma

5-Polyp in Peutz Jeghers syndrome are:
a-Adenomatous polyps b-Hyperplastic polyps
c-Hamartomous polyps d-Pseudopolyps

6-Histologic hallmark of rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis is:
a-Crescent in most of the glomeruli
b-Loss of foot process of epithelial cells
c-Subendothelial dence deposites
d-Diffuse thickening of glomerular capillary wall

7-All of the following are true for complete mole except:
a-Diffuse circumferential trophoblastic proliferation
b-Hydropic swelling of villi
c-No fetal parts seen
d-Triploid karyotype (seen in partial mole)

8-Histologic hallmark of paget disease of nipple is:
a-Comedo necrosis
b-Infiltration of the epidermis by malignant cells
c-Atypical lobular hyperplasia

9-In early gastric carcinoma malignancy is confined to:
b-Mucosa and submucosa
c-Gastric wall without lymphnode metaasis
d-Gastric glands

Early gastric cancer (T1 or 2, N0/1, P0, H0)

  • Suitable for attempted curative resection if the patient is medically fit enough.

  • Surgery is simple or radical gastrectomy.

  • Local resection or ablation has an uncertain place in treatment.

Advanced gastric cancer (T3 or more or any of N2/P1+/H1+)

  • Surgical intervention very unlikely to be curative. May be undertaken for palliative treatment.

  • Local ablation for symptom control occasionally possible.

  • Palliative chemotherapy occasionally effective for disseminated disease.

Table 7.1 TNM staging of gastric cancers

T (tumour)

N (nodes)

M (metastases)

Tis, in situ within mucosa

N0, no lymph nodes

P (peritoneal metastases)

T1, confined to submucosa

N1, involved nodes within 3cm of primary

P0, no peritoneal metastases

T2, confined to muscle wall

N2, involved nodes more than 3cm from primary

P1/2/3, peritoneal metastases in increasing extent

T3, involvement of serosal surface

H (hepatic metastases)

T4, involvement of other organs

H0, no hepatic metastases

H1/2/3, hepatic metastases in increasing extent

10-Which hepatitis virus is notorious for causing a chronic hepatitis evolving cirrhosis?
a-Hepatitis C virus b-Hepatitis B virus
c-Hepatitis E virus d-Cytomegalo virus

11-Example of type IV hypersensitivity:
a-Coagulase test b-Mantoux test
c-Schick test d-Elek’s test

12-Recommended vaccines for rabies:
c-BCG d-HDCV Ans-D

13-Pigment producing colonies are seen in:
a-Pseudomonas b-Atypical mycobacteria
c-Serratia marcescens d-All of the above 

14-Flurescent microscopy is used to diagnose:
a-Mycobacterium tuberculosis b-Staphylococcus aureus
c-Streptococcus capsulatum d-Klebsilla aerogenes

15-Germ tube test is diagnosis for:
a-Candida albicans b-Cryptococcus neoformans
c-Histoplasma capsulatum d-Coccidiodomycosis

A germ tube test is a diagnostic test in which a sample of fungal spores are suspended in serum and examined by microscopy for the detection of any germ tubes.[2] It is particularly indicated for colonies of white or cream color on fungal culture, where a positive germ tube test is strongly indicative of Candida albicans.[2]

16-pH of sabouraud’s dextrose agar is adjusted to:
a-4-6 b-1-2
c-6-8 d-8-10

17-Painless hematuria is seen in:
a-Schistostoma hematobium b-Schistostoma mansoni
c-Schistostoma japonicum d-Paragonium westermani

18-Babesoisis is transmitted by:
a-Tick b-Mites
c-flea d-Mosquito

19-Dengue fever is transmitted by:
a-Tiger mosquito b-Jackal mosquito
c-Wolf mosquito d-Lion mosquito

20-Complication in Malaria are commonly seen with:
a-Plasmodium ovale b-Plasmodium vivax
c-Plasmodium falciparum d-Plasmodium malariae

21-Type III category of basal FRACTURE of skull are:
a-Those that run in the coronal plane from lateral end of one petrous through sella turcica to lateralend of contralateral petrous ridge
b-Run from side to side in the coronal plane but do not pass through the sella turcica
c-Run from front to the contralateral back passing through the sella turcica
d-Run from front to back involving all cranial fossae & sella turcica .

22-The various component of a will to be valid are:
a-A knowledge of the property to be disposed of
b-A legatee can attest a will
c-Presence of delusion not affecting in any way the disposal of the property or the person affected by the will
d-It should be made during lucid interval

23-Reasons for marked variation in the shape of exit wounds of rifled weapons:
a-Deformation of bullet during its passage through body and thereby presenting an irregular wound
b-Absence of tumbling of the bullet in the body & hence it may not be able to exit with nose end first
c-Intact bullet in the body after striking bone
d-At times , both entry and exit wounds are of the same as in the assassination of kennedy , President of USA

24-“Dry Submarine “ in custodial torture injuries refer to:
a-Falanga beating on soles of feet
b-Tying of a plastic bag over the ears 
c-Immersing head in contaminated water
d-Suspending the accused by ankles

25-“CAFÉ coronary “ refer to death in intoxication person during meals due to :
a-Suffocation b-Natural cardiac death
c-Choking d-Smothening

26-The single test that confirms the diagnosis of autoimmune hemolytic anaemia is:
a-Coombs test b-Reticulocyte count
c-Peripheral smear d-Hemoglobin electrophoresis

27-The advantage of breast feeding to the mother includes:
a-Decrease postpartum bleeding b-Prevention of breast cancer
c-Spacing of pregnancies d-All of the above 

28-All these condition can produce metabolic acidosis except:
a-Diabetic ketoacidosis b-Salicylate poisoning
c-Gastroenteritis with dehydration d-Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis

29-All these condition are autosomal dominant disorders except:
a-Marfan’s syndrome

b-Hunter syndrome 
c-Osteogenesis imperfecta


30-All these conditions can produce first day jaundice in newborn except:
a-RH incompatibility b-TORCH infection
c-Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis d-G6PD deficiency

31-Infantile hemiplegia can occur due to cerebrovascular accidents resulting in:
a-Thrombosis b-Embolism
c-Staphylococci d-All of the above 

32-Common cause for epiglottitis in children is due to :
a-Hemiphilus influenza b-Pneumococci
c-Staphylococci d-Strepyococci

33-The cause for anoxic spells in children include all except:
a-Tranposition of great vessels b-Tricuspid artresia
c-total anomalous muscular venous return d-Coarctation of aorta

34-Gower sign is classical of one of the following condition:
a-Congenital myopathy b-Werdnig-Hoffman disease
c-Duchenne muscular muscular dystrophy d-Guillain-Barre syndrome

35-All these condition are SEX chromosome disorder except:
a-Turner syndrome b-Kline filter syndrome
c-Super female d-Down’s syndrome

36-Thought disorder is seen in:
a-Obsessive compulsive disorder b-Anxiety neurosis
c-Schizophrenia d-Psychopathic personality

37-Repetative hand washing is symptom of;
a-Posy-traumatic stress disorder b-Depression
c-Anorexia nervosa d-Obsessive compulsive disorder

38-Clozapine is a:
a-Atypical anti-psychotic drug b-Anti-anxiety drug
c-Used in dementia d-Also known as disulfiram

39-Flouxetine is a :
a-Anti- psychotic drug b-Used in opiate poisoning
c-Tricyclic antidepressant d-Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor 

40-Fluctuating level of consciousness is seen in:
a-Hysteria b-Delirium
c-Dementia d-Mania

41-After oral ingection of 8- methyoxypsoralen , how long an interval should be allowed before UVA radiation is given in PUVA treatment?
a-1 hr b-2 hr 
c-3 hr d-4hr

42-Which positive test does not necessarily indicate HIV infection in a newborn?
a-ELISA for HIV IgG antibody

 b-p24 antigen
c-Virus culture d-ELISA for HIV IgA antibody

43-Each of the following is caused by a pathogen of a Borrelia species , except:
a-Erythema chronicum migrans

b-Acrodermatitis chronica atrophicvans
c-Epidemic relapsing fever d-Rat bite fever 

44-Which of the following may occur either as a result of an elevated antrogen level or an exaggerated clinical response of tissues to androgen?
a-Acne b-Hirsutism
c-Alopecia d-All of these 

45-Which of the following is found least frequently in patients with TEN (Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis)?
a-Anamia (erythrocytic) b-Lymphopenia
c-Neutropenia d-Eosinophilia

46-The target material used in X –ray tube:
a-Tin b-Tungsten 
c-Platinum d-Copper

47-The following are radiological features of sigmoid vovulus except:
a-Inverted U shaped bowel loop b-liver overlap sign
c-Bird of prey sign d-Cupola sign

48-Medical sonography employs ultrasound frequency between:
a-1-2 MHz

b-Less than 1 MHz
c-100 Hz

d-Greater than 100 MHz

49-Colour Doppler study can evaluate the following except:
a-Direction of blood flow b-Velocity of blood flow
c-Impedence index d-Intravascular pressure 

50-The Radionuclide used in assessing the renal morphology:

b-99mTc-DMSA (for morp)
c-99mT-DTPA (for function)


51-In Ranson’s criteria to predict severity of acute pancreatitis:
a-A serum amylase that is 4 times normal is significant
b-Serum amylase level is not a a criteria
c-Rising serum amylase level are important
d-Serum amylase equals urine amylase

Glasgow Imrie criteria

3 or more positive criteria within 48h of admission = severe attack

  • Age > 55y

  • WCC > 15 000 × 109/L

  • Glucose > 7mmol/L

  • Blood urea > 7mmol/L

  • Albumin < 35g/L

  • Corrected calcium < 2mmol/L

  • PaO2 < 10kPa

52-Non-propulsive peristalsis is feature of:
a-Paralytic ileus b-Impacted faeces
c-Mesenteric vascular occlusion d-Incarceration

53-The operative wound after surgery for gangrenous , perforated appendicitis is best managed by:
a-Primary suture b-Delayed primary closure 
c-Healing by secondry intention d-Antibiotic lavage

54-A thrombosed external haemorrhoid ( or perianal haematoma ) is:
a-Painless, with gradual onset

 b-The 5 days , painful , self curing lesion 
c-Part of internal haemorrhoids

d-A sentinel pile

55-The ratio of males to female in the incidence of strangulated inguinal hernia in infancy is :
a-5:1 b-1:2
c-2:1 d-1:5 

56-Treatment of intracapsular FRACTURE in a man aged 60 years:
a-Dynamic hip screw fixation b-Total hip replacement
c-Hemiarthroplasty d-Austin Moore pinning

57-Barlows test is done to diagnose:
a-C.D.H. b-Cruciate ligament tear
c-Shoulder dislocation d-Ankle joint instability

58-Osteochondritis of lunate bone is known as:
a-Perthes disease b-Osgood schlatters disease
c-Kohler’s disease d-Kienbock’s disease 

59-Spine ventosa is caused by:
a-Leprosy b-Defect in the spine
c-Tuberculosis d-Gout

60-Calcification of inter vertebral disc is a feature of:
a-Ankylosing spondilitis

b-Hyper parathyroidis
c-Charcot’s disease


61-Tom Smith’s arthritis of hip joint is due to:
a-C.D.H. b-Post polio
c-Pyogenic infection d-Cerebral palsy

62-Osteosarcoma arises from:
a-Epiphysis b-Diaphysis
c-Metaphysis d-Bone marrow

63-Reversal of albumin-globulin ratio is seen in:
a-Osteochondroma b-Multiple myeloma
c-Osteoclastoma d-Osteoid osteoma

64-Treatment of bone cyct;
a-Amputation b-Bone grafting 
c-Chemotheraphy d-Disarticulation

65-Osteochondroma is also known :
a-Exostosis b-Gaint cell tumour
c-Ivary osteoma d-Osteoblastoma

66-Oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve is shifted to the right in the following condition:
a-Acidosis b-Increase 2-3 DPG level
c-Hyperthermia d-All the above

Hemoglobin binding curve: causes of shift to right Hi Yield [ID 2561]

"CADET, face right!":



2,3-DPG (aka 2,3 BPG)



67-Following are the effects of thiopentose sodium anaethesis except:
a-Respiratory depression b-Reduced cardiac output
c-Good uterine relaxation d-Low intraocular tension

68-Contra indication for nasotracheal intubation:
a-Basal skull fractures b-Neonates
c-Difficult intubation d-Prolong intubation

69-Blood collected from acid citrate dextrose can be stored for:
a-28 days b-21 days 
c-14 days d-7 days

70-Advantages of regional analgesia blockade are all these except:
a-A reduced need for opioids
b-Early resumption for normal activity and ambulation
c-A quick awakening from general anaesthesis
d-Increase of the stress response

71-Corneal manifestation of Wilson’s disease is :
a-Fleischer Ring b-Arcus Juvenilis
c-Keyser Fleischer Ring d-Band Keratopathy

72-Diabetic retinopathy causes :
a-Traction Retinal Detachment b-Neovascular glaucoma
c-Vitreos haemorrhage d-All of the above 

73-Giant Papillary Conjunctivitis is caused by:
a-Contact Lens wear b-Ocular Prosthesis
c-Protruding corneal sutures d-All of the above 

74-Ethambutol toxicity leads to :
a-Steven Johnson syndrome
b-Pupillary dilatation
c-Visual loss with colour vision defects
d-Bull’s eye retinopathy (chloroquine)

75- Field defect seen in papilledema
a-Seidel’s scotoma
b-Constriction of peripheral fields
c-Centro-caecal scotoma
d-None of the above.

76- Dysphagia for fluids but not to solids is seen in :
b-Achalasia (hellers myotomy)
c-Carcinoma oesophagus
d-Reflux oesopagitis

77-Epistaxia in elderly person is common in:
a-Foreign body b-Allergic rhinitis
c-Hypertension d-Nasopharyngeal carcinoma

78-Cerebello pontine angle tumour is most commonly:
a-Acoustic neuroma b-Cholesteatoma
c-Meningioma d-All of the above

79-Gradenigo’s syndrome does not consist of:
a-Abduscent nerve palsy b-Palatal palsy 
c-Aural discha d-Retro orbital pain

80-Early symptoms of carcinoma larynx:
a-Dysphagia b-Cough
c-Haemoptysis d-Hoarseness of voice

81-Physiologically, oxytocin is characterized by all except:
a-Circulates entirely in free form
b-Plasma half life 5-7 minutes
c-Level increase during labor
d-Released in pulsatile fashion

82-Studies have indicated the most important of the components of the Bishop score to be that related to:
a-Dilatation b-Effacement
c-Station d-Consistency

Karnataka 2004 PREPG with answers
83-The factor that is likely to influence the rate of relapce and prognosis in patients with ovarian cancer is:
a-Tumor grade b-Tumor stage
c-Intraoperative Rupture of tumor d-Presence of dence adhesion

84-Most common symptom associatd with uterine myomas:
a-Menorrhagia b-Metrorrhagia
c-Pressure d-Urinary frequency

85-How much is the risk of ovarian cancer increased above normal in a women with nonautosomal dominant genotype with one first degree related with ovarian cancer:
a-2-3 times b-5 times
c-10 times d-20 times

86-What is the most common method for detecting early stage ovarian cancer?
a-Evaluaation of vague gastrointestinal symtomss
b-Palpation of an asymptomatic mass during routine pelvic examination
c-Screening CA 125
d-Screening vaginal ultrasound

87-Which ultrasound finding with an adnexal mass is most suspicious for malignancy?
a-8 cm in diameter b-Several internal excrescences 
c-Cyctic with two thin septations d-Freee pelvic fluid

88-The most common major complication with Laparoscopic hysterectomy is:
a-Urinary tract injury b-Bowel injury
c-Uncontrolled bleeding d-Pulmonary embolus

89-The patient with pre-eclampsia diagnosed remote from term, which of the following is NOT necessarily an indication for expeditious delivery:
a-Blood Pressure 170/115 on medication
b-Proteinuria 5g per 24 hours 
c-Platelet count 80,000/ul
d-Serum transaminase levels three times normal

90-Independent risk factors for pre-eclampsia include all except:
a-hyper homocycteinemia b-Race 
c-Number of partners d-Family history

91-Pregnancy- associated risk factor for pre-eclampsia include all except:
a-Rh Incompatibility b-Multiple pregnancy
c-Fetal structural abnormalities d-trisomy 13

92-The severity of pelvic pain in patients with endometriosis correlated best with:
a-Number of implants b-Depth of invasion of lesions 
c-Type of lesions d-stage of disease

93-accepted indication for Assisted Reproductive Technologies (ART) in endometriosis patients include all of the following except:
a-Advanced disease

b-At least one year of infertility 
c-Multifactorial infertility

d-Advanced disease

94-The data are most convincing for which theory as the pathogenesis of endometriosis in the peritoneal cavity:
a-Coelomic metaplasia b-Induction
c-Embryonic rests d-Lymphatic & vascular metastasis

95-Endometroisis has been found in all of the following location except:
a-spleen b-Central Nervous system
b-Extremities d-Pancreas

96-controlled ovarian hyperstimulation as a treatment for infertility is most useful in which patient:
a-Women with premature ovarian failure
b-Women undergoing cancer therapy
c-Couples undergoing artificial insemination

97-The formation of primordial follicle in human fetus is completed by:
a-4 weeks b-8 weeks
c-13 weeks d-18 weeks

98-During pregnancy there is an increased respiratory sensitivity to Carbon dioxide due to higher circulating level of:
a-Progesterone b-Estrogen
c-Estriol d-Prolactin

99-An effective and safe treatment for recurrent lag cramps in the second half of pregnancy is:
a-Vitamin C b-Vitamin D
c-Acetaminophen d-Calcium 1 gm. Twice daily for 2 weeks 

100-The Ureter:
a-Crosses superior to the uterine artery in the Broad ligament
b-Derives its sympathetic nerve supply from the 2nd and 3rd lumbar nerve roots
c-Is widest at the pelvic ureteric junction
d-Derives its blood supply entirely from the renal and superior vesical arteries

101-Who said these words: “To study phenomenon of disease without books is to sail an uncharted sea, while to study without patients is not to go to sea at all”
a-Hamilton Bailey b-Sir Robert Hutchison
c-Sir William Osler d-J.B.Murphy

102-T1 & T2 images are a feature of which diagnostic test?
a-Ultrasound b-C. T. scan
c-Duplex scan d-MRI scan

103-Who said: “SKIN is the best dressing?
a-Joseph Lister b-John Hunter
c-James Paget d-McNeill Love

104-How do you get an ideal scar?
a-Achieve quite, secondry healing b-Ensure tight closure of the SKIN
c-Give antibiotics d-Minimize tension

105-Hypokalemic alkalosis is commonly seen in surgical wards in:
a-Excessive absorption of alkali b-Excessive vomiting in pyloric stenosis
c-Eessive steroid use d-Diarrhoea with dehydration

106-5% dextrose in normal saline is :
a-Hypotonic b-Isotonic 
c-Hypertonic d-A blood substitute

107-Infection with Hepatitis B virus is associated with the appearance in the blood of all of the following except:
a-Hepatitis B antibody

 b-Hepatitis B surface antigen
c-The Dane particle

d-DNA polymerase activity

108-Earliest changes of neoplastic transformation as seen at a microscopic level is called:
a-Hyperplasia b-Metaplaisa
c-Dyplasia d-Carcinoma in sutu

109-The best guide to adequate tissue perfusion in the fluid management of a patient with burns, is to ensure a minimum hourly urine output of:
a-10-30 ml b-30-50 ml 
c-50-70 ml d-70-100 ml

110-Example of indirect traumatic gangrene are all except:
a-Use of local anaesthetic with adrenaline and tourniquet for digits
b-Pressure of fractured bone on main artery to a limb
c-Thrombosis of large artery following injury
d-That resulting from crush or pressure injury

111-Axillary vein thrombosis is NOT a complication of :
a-Throracic outlet syndrome

b-Simple mastectomy 
c-Excessive upper limb exercise d-Strap-hangers

112-The four points of probe placement in Focuced Abdominal Sonogram for Trauma (FAST) in blunt thoraco-abdominal trauma are:
a-Epigastrium , R hypochondrium , (L) Lower chest, hypogastrium
b-Epigastrium, R & (L) Hypochondria R Iiiac fossa
c-Epigastrium, r 7 (L) Lumbar regions, hypogastrium 
d-Hypogastrium, r& (L) Lumbar region,R lower chest

113-In the acronym “SWELLING” used for the history and examination of a lumb or swelling , the letter ‘N’ stands for:
a-Nodes b-Noise (Thrill/bruit) 
c-Numbness d-Neurological effects

114-A position Froment’s sign is associated with palsy of which nerve?
a-Median b-Axillary
c-Radial d-Ulnar

115-Acute bactorial sailadenitis is managed by:
a-Immediate sialography
b-Fluid intake restriction
c-Cuture of the FNAC from the involved gland
d-Use of broad spectrum antibiotics 

116-A branchial cyst develops from the vestigial remnants of the :
a-2nd branchial cleft

b-3rd branchial cleft
c-1st branchial cleft

d-4th branchial cleft

117-About follicular carcinoma of the thyroid gland:
a-FNAC is diagnostic
b-Lymph node metasteses are common
c-Distant metastases are more common
d-Local recurrence rates are low

118-Poland’s syndrome of the congenital absence of the sternal head of the pestoralis major muscle is associated with:
a-Mastalgia b-Amazia 
c-Polymazia d-Gynecomazia

119-Chest drain insretion is safest when perfomed:
a-In the apex of the chest for pneumothorax
b-In the base of the chest for haemothorax
c-In the ‘triangle of safety’ on the antero-lateral chest wall 
d-With the smallest bore chest tube available

120-Disparity of the bowel ends during end to end anastamosis is corrected by:
a-Cheatle’s manoeuvre b-Connell suture
c-Lembert suture d-Czerny technique

121-Odynophagia is :
a-Throat pain b-Pain on swallowing
c-Heartburn d-Painless dysphagia

122-For inoperable gastric neoplasms involving the cardia, the best palliation is by:
a-Intubation b-Exclusion
c-Pre-sternal bypass d-Gastroenterostomy

123-Vascular inflow occlusion of the liver is by:
a-Clambing the hepatic artery b-Occluding the portal vein
c-Clambing the hepatic veins d-The pringle manoeuvre 

124-Splenic abscess is best treated by:
a-Open splenectomy
b-Laparoscopic splectomy
c-Percutaneous drainage under image guidance
d-Antibiotic only

125-“Limey bile” is :
a-Present in the CBD
b-Thin and clear
c-Like toothpaste emulsion in the gall bladder
d-Bacterial rich

126-Myelin around central nervous axons is laid down by:
a-Microglia b-Schwann cells
c-Oligodendrocytes d-Protoplasmic astrocytes

127-Posterior belly of digastric is supplied by:
a-Facial nerve b-Mandibular nerve
c-Spinal accessory nerve d-Ansa cervicalis

128-The paranasal air sinuses opening into the middle meatus include all except:
a-Frontal sinus b-Maxillary sinus
c-Posterior ethmoidal sinus d-Anterior ethmoidal sinus

129-The following are the branches of the internal iliac artery except:
a-Ovarian artery b-Uterine artery
c-Superior vesical artery d-Obturator artery

130-Which one of the followinf is attached to the lingual of the mandible?
a-Stylomandiblar ligament
b-Sphenomandibular ligament
c-Pterygomandibular raphe
d-Middle constrictor of pharynx

131-The distance by which two touch stimuli must be separated to be perceived as two separate stimuli is greatest on:
a-The lips b-The palm of the hand
c-The back of scapula d-The dorsum of the hand

132-The visceral pain:
a-Shows relatively rapid adaption
b-Mediated by ‘B’ fibre in the dorsal root of spinal nerve
c-Can sometimes be relieved by applying an irritant to the SKIN
d-Most closely resemble fast pain produced by naxious stimulation of the SKIN

133-The fourth heart sound is caused by:
a-Closure of aortic and pulmonary orifices
b-Vibration of the ventricular wall during systole
c-Ventricualr filling
d-Closure of mitral and tricuspid orifices

Karnataka 2004 PG paper
a-All originate from bone marrow after birth
b-Are unaffected by harmone
c-Converted to monocytes in response to antigens
d-Are part of body’s defence against cancer

135-Which of the follwing has the highest pH?
a-Gastric juice b-Bile in the gallbladder
c-Pancreatic juice d-Saliva

136-The concentration of sphingomyelins are increased in:
a-Gauche’s disease b-Fabry’s disease
c-Febrile disease d-Niemann-Pck disease 

137-Salivary amylase is activated by:
a-Na+ b-K+
c-HCO3- d-Cl- 

138-Glucose increase plasma insuline by a process that invoves:
a-GLVT1 b-GLVT2 

139-In the body, metabolism of 10 gms. of protein would produce approximately:
a-1 K calorie b-41 K calories
c-410 K calories d-41 calories

140-Refsum’s disease is a rere neurological disorser caused by:
a-Accumulation of glutamic acid
b-Accumulation of glycine
c-Accumulation of phytanic acid
d-Accumulation of phnylalanine

141-The term physical half life is applicable to:
a-Repository preparations b-Prodrugs
c-Radioactive isotopes d-Alkylating agents

142-The antiretroviral drug which is also effective in chronic active hepatitia-B infection is:
a-Zidovudine b-Nelfinavir
c-Efavirenz d-Procarbazine

143-The drug of choice of  chronic myeloid leukaemia is:
a-Chlorambucil b-Busulfan 
c-Vincristine d-Procarbazine

144-Which of the follwing antipileptic drug does not produce Hepatic Micromosomal enzyme induction?
a-Phenobarbitone b-Carbamazepine
c-phenytoin d-Sodium valproate

145-The antithyroid drug preferred for use during pregnancy and lactation is:
a-Propylthiouracil b-Methimazole
c-Carbimazole d-Radioactive iodine

146-The antibiotic known to cause “Red Man’s “ syndrome is:
a-clindamycin b-Cefadroxil
c-Vancomycin d-Azithromycin

147-The local anaethetic known to cause Methaemoglobinaemia as adverse effect is :
a-Lidocaine b-Bupivacaine
c-Tetracaine d-Prilocaine 

148-Which of the following skeletal muscle relaxants undergoes Hoffmann elimination?
a-Pancuronium b-Rocuronium
c-Atracurium d-Succinyl choline

149-Which of the follwing antitubercular drugs does not cause hepatotoxicity?
a-Isoniazid b-Ethambutol 
c-Pyrazinamide d-rifampicin

150-The betablocker having intrinsic sympathomimetic activity is:
a-Propronolol b-Atenolol
c-Sotalol d-Pindolol 

151-Myasthenia gravis may be associated with
a-Thymoma b- Systematic LUPUS erythematosus
c-Hyperthyroidism d-All of the above

152-Example of PRION disease include:
a-Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease b-Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
c-Alzheimer’s disease d-None of the above

153-The treatment of Herpes simplex viral encephalitis should include:
a-Zidovudine b-Acyclovir 
c-Didanosine d-Symptomatic treatment only

154-The drug found to be beneficial in amytrophic lateral sclerosis is:
a-Riluzole b-Methylprednisolone
c-Hydroxyurea d-None of the above

155-The drug of choice for a patient with a combination of primary generalized tonic-clonic seizures and absence seizures is:
a-Ethosuximide b-Carbamazepine
c-Valproic acid d-Phenytoin sodium

156-Complication of Paget’s disease include:
a-High output cardiac failure b-Osteogenic sarcoma
c-Pathologic fractures d-All of the above 

157-Causes of Rickets include:
a-Dietary phosphate deficiency
b-Distal renal tubular acidosis
c-Small intestinal disease with malabsoption
d-All of the above

158-Causes of hypercalcemia include:
a-Hyperthyroidism b-Hypothyroidism
c-Hypoparathyroidism d-None of the above

159-Drugs useful in the treatment of acute gouty arthritis include:
a-Allopurinol b-Colchicine 
c-Probenicid d-Sulfinpyrazone

160-Drugs considered safe in patients with acute intermittent porphyria include:
a-Phenobarbitone b-Valproic acid
c-Carbamazepine d-Narcotic analgesics 

161-The level of LDL cholestrol at which therapy should be intiated in a aotient without coronary artery disease and no risk factor is:
a-100 mg/ dL

b-130 mg/ dL
c-160 mg/ dL

d-190 mg / dL
Ans-C, D

162-The most common karyotypic abnormality associated with Turner syndrome is :
a-45, X b-46, XY
c-47, XXY d-45, Y

163-Insulin resistance is defined as a daily requirement of insulin greater than:
a-100 units b-150 units
c-200 units d-250 units

164-The treatment of choice for hypertension in a patient with phaeochromocytoma:
a-Alpha adrenergic blocking agents
b-Beta adrenergic blocking agents
c-Calcium channel blockers
d-Angiotensin receptor blockers

165-Nelson’s syndrome is a complication of:
a-Unilateral adrenalectomy for Cushing’s syndrome
b-Bilateral adrenalectomy for bilateral adrenal hyperplasia
c-Excision of a pituitary tumor for bilateral adrenal hyperlasia
d-Excision of a hypothalamic tumor for bilateral adrenal hyperplasia

166-The electrolyte abnormality typical seen in primary aldosteronism is:
a-Hypokalemia b-Hyperkalemia
c-Hyponatremia d-Hypernatremia

167-The feature of subacute thyroiditis include:
a-Elevated T3 & T4 levels b-Depressed TSH levels
c-Depressed RAIU d-All of the above

168-SIADH typical causes:
a-Hypernatremia and a urinary osmolality300 mmol/Kg
c-Hyponatremia & a urinary osmollity300 mmol/Kg

169- The most common manifestations in Takayasu’s arteritis are related to
occlusion of:
a-Abdominal aorta b-Renal arteries
c-Subclavian arteries d-Pulmonary arteries

170-Nucleoside analogues used in the treatment of HIV infection include:
a-Indinavir b-Nevirapine
c-Didanosine d-Efavirenz

171-Drugs used in the treatment of pneumocystis carinii pneumonia include:
a-Trimethoprin-sulfamethoxazole b-Dapsone
c-Clindamycin d-All of the above

172-Drugs useful in the treatment of chronic hepatitis C include:
a-Glucocorticoids b-Interferon alpha 
c-hydroxyurea d-None of the above

173-Finding suggestive of an obstructive jaundice on a liver function test is a marked elevation of:
a-Unconjugated bilirubin b-Conjugated bilirubin
c-Alkaline phosphatase d-AST and ALT

174-An abnormal D-xylase test is suggestive of:
a-Pancreatic insufficiency
b-Hepatic insufficiency
c-A mucosal abnormality of proximal small intestine
d-Colonic disease

175-In a patient with hypoxemia the finding suggestive of hypoventilation on an arterial blood gas analysis is:
a-Elevated PaCO2 b-Decreased PaCO2
c-Elavated pH d-None of t he above

176-PQLI stands for:
a-Physical quality of life index
b-Physical quantity of life index
c-Physiological quality of life index
d-Psychological quality of life index

177-Mean, Medium and Mode are:
a-Measure of dispersion
b-Measure association between two variables
c-Test of significance
d-Measure of central tendency

178-Incidence rate refers to:
a-Only old cases b-Both old and new cases
c-Only new cases d-None of the above

179-Generation time in epidemiology id defined as:
a-The interval between marriage and the birth of first child
b-The interval of time between the receipt of infection by host and maximal infectivity of the host
c-The interval of time between primary case and secondry cases
d-Interval of time between invasion by infection agent and appearance of first sign or symprom of the disease/ in question

180-In the demographic cycle, India is in the :
a-High stationary stage b-Early expanding stage
c-Late expanding stage d-Low stationary stage

181-The overall prevalence of tuberculosis infection in India as per 4th round of longitudinal survey was:
a-20% b-30% 
c-40% d-50%

182-Pulse polio immunization is administration of OPV to:
a-All children between 0-5 years of age on a single day, irrespective of their previous immunization status
b-Children in the age group of 0-1 year only who have not been immunized earlier
c-Children in the age group of 12-24 months only,as the booster dose
d-All children between 0-5 years of sge, whenever there is an outbreak of poliomyelitis

183-In high risk areas the radical treatment for plasmodium vivax infection after microscopic confermation is administration of tablets primaquine in the daily dosage of:
a-0.25 mg/Kg body weight

b-0.50 mg/Kg body weight
c-0.75 mg/Kg body weight c-1.00 mg/Kg body weight

184-Couple protection rate in India is:
a-30.8 % b-46.2% 
b-62.4% d-85.7%

185-By international agreement , low birth weight has been defined as a birth weight when measured within the first hour of life is:
a-Less than 2000 grams b-Less than 2500 grams 
c-Less than 2800 grams d-Less than 3000 grams

186-For an adult Indian male the daily requirement of protein is expressed as:
a-0.5 gms/ Kg body weight

b-0.75 gms/Kg body weight
c-1.0 gms/ Kg body weight

 d-1.50 gms/Kg body weight

187-Lathyrism is due to consumption of :
a-Red gram dhal b-Contaminated ground nuts
c-Bengal gram dhal d-Khesari dhal 

188-Temporary hardness of water is due to presence of :
a-Bicarbonates of calcium and magnesium 
b-Chlorides of calcium and magnesium
c-Nitrates of calcium and magnesium
d-Oxides of calcium and magnesium

189-Kata thermometer measures:
a-Air temperature only
b-Air temperature and humidity
c-Air temperature humidity & air movement
d-None of the above

190-The optimum floor space recommended per adult person in a dwelling place is:
a-50-100 sq. ft. b-101-150 sq.ft.
c-151-200 sq.ft. d-201-250 sq. ft.

191-An upper limit of noise which people can tolerate without sub damage to their hearing is:
a-45 db b-65 db
c- 85 db d- 105 db

192-The permissible dose of amn made radiation should not exceed:
a-3 rads per year b-5 rads per year 
c-8 rads per year d-10 rads per year

193-The mean radiant temperature is measured by:
a-Dry bulb thermometer
b-Wet bulb thermometer
c-six’s maximum and minimum thermometer

194-Following latrines are suitable for camps and temporary use except:
a-Shollow trench latrine b- Pit latrine
c-Borehole latrine d-Septic tank

195-Sand fly transmit the following disease except:
a-Relapsing fever b-Kala azar
c-Sand- fly fever d-Oraya fever

196-The following drugs cause methemoglobinemia:
a-Aniline b-Dapsone
c-Nitrates d-All of the above

197-The following drugs are useful in the treatment of isonized poisoning:
a-Pyridoxine b-Diazepam
c-Bicarbonate d-All of the above 

198-Gastric lavage is contraindicated in the following :
a-Barbiturate poisoning

b-Kerosene poisoning 
c-Paracetamol poisoning

d-None of the above

199-The following is not a feature of Wernicke’s encephalopathy:
a-Lateral rectus palsy b-Paralysis of conjugate dominant
c-Pupilary dilation d-Nystagmus

200-The inheritance in Dechenne muscular dystrophy is:
a-X- linked recessive b-Autosomal dominant
c-Autosomal recessive d-Polygenic

Download 261.89 Kb.

Share with your friends:

The database is protected by copyright ©ininet.org 2020
send message

    Main page