Unit I: Nature & Perspectives


Unit III: Cultural Patterns and Processes



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Unit III: Cultural Patterns and Processes
46. Classify each of the following religions as monotheistic or polytheistic, universalizing or ethnic, and include their hearth region, then rank them according to number of followers


Religion

Mono/Poly

Ethnic/Universalizing

Hearth Region

Buddhism










Hinduism










Islam










Judaism










Mormonism










Orthodox Christianity










Protestantism










Roman Catholicism










Animism









Match the following (can be used more than once or not at all):



47. example of linguistic fragmentation

48. an example of a lingua franca

49. the language with the most speakers (as a first language)

50. a language in the Sino-Tibetan family

51. A language in the Indo-European family

a. Mandarin

b. Swahili

c. Nigeria

d. Haitian Creole

e. Hindi



52. Which of the following is the belief that one’s own culture is the best or better than other cultures?

a. Ethos


b. Prejudice

c. Ethnocentrism

d. Acculturation
53. The Indo-European language family includes the major languages of Europe and those dominant in all the following regions EXCEPT

a. Russia

b. Northern India

c. Iran


d. Eastern and Southern Australia

e. Central Asia


54. Which of the following is an example of a cultural landscape?

a. coastal wetland

b. cloud forest

c. stand of mangrove trees

d. eroded shoreline

e. Adobe ruins


Classify each of the following as folk culture or popular culture:
55. the Amish 56. Blue jeans 57. McDonalds 58. Goetta

59. Small scale 60. Urban 61. Rural 62. Cultural homogeneity

63. slow change 64. The internet 65. Anime 66. Relocation diffusion
67. Which of the following correctly sequences the continuum from language family to dialect?
a. Afro-Asiatic, Semitic, Arabic, Berber

b. Sino-Tibetan, Sinitic, Mandarin, Chinese

c. Indo-European, Indo-Iranian, Hindi, Bengali

d. Indo-European, Germanic, English, Midland-Northern


68. The largest number of immigrants to the United States every year is from
a. Guatemala b. Haiti c. Mexico d. Cuba e. Dominican R.

69. Which of the following aspects of diffusion of Western culture threaten non-Western ways of life?


I. loss of traditional values

II. subjugation of women

III. Western control of media

IV. alteration of traditional landscapes

V. pollution
a. I and II only

b. I and III only

c. I, II and IV only

d. I, III, IV and V only

e. I, II, III, IV, and V
70. Which of the following countries has the largest number of Sunni Muslims?
a. Saudi Arabia

b. Bangladesh

c. Egypt

d. Iran


e. Indonesia
71. Which of the following religions is predominant in the states of Wisconsin, Minnesota and North Dakota?

a. Catholic b. Mormon c. Lutheran d. Baptist e. Methodist



72. According to the figure above, which of the following choices best describes the changes in interaction as distances increases?


a. it remains unchanged

b. it increases at first, then decreases

c. it increases

d. it changes randomly

e. it decreases
73. Match the Protestant denomination with the correct percentage of the total population that its adherents represent:


Lutheran

Episcopalian

Presbyterian

Baptist


Pentecostal

Methodist


a. 16%

b. 7%


c. 6%

d. 3%


e. 2%

f. 1%



74. Match the religion with the correct percentage of adherents globally:


Buddhism

Islam


Hinduism

Christianity

Judaism

Animist/Shamanist Traditional

Nonreligious

a. 33%


b. 21%

c. 16%


d. 14%

e. 6%


e. 6%

f. .22%


75. Which of the following majority Muslim countries has a secular government?
a. Saudi Arabia b. Iran c. Turkey d. Afghanistan e. Yemen

76. Identify each of the following as part of material or non-material culture:

Gregorian chant Muslim prayer rug a Cathedral
Liberty, Equality, Fraternity! A cul-de-sac a food taboo
77. Put an x by the three MOST WIDELY SPOKEN languages globally:

_Arabic _English _Mandarin _Hindi _Spanish _Bengali


Unit IV: Political Organization of Space
78. Put the following in order from the largest to the smallest: census tract, county, municipality, nation-state, province, empire

79. Europeans’ primary motivations for colonization:

G_______, G________________, G___________
Match the following:


80. nation-state

81. multi-nation state

82. multi-state nation

83. stateless nation

84. unrecognized state

a. Korea


b. Kurds

c. Palestine

d. Indonesia

e. Japan




Match the following:


85. compact state

86. elongated state

87. prorupted state

88. perforated state

89. fragmented state

90. landlocked state

91. microstate
a. Afghanistan

b. Indonesia

c. Nicaragua

d. South Africa

e. Vatican City

f. Vietnam




92. Name two forward capitals (country and new capital city)

93. Colony sorting. The number tells you how many for that country. Each country will have at least three different continents represented:



Britain (4) France (4) Spain (3) Portugal (2) Netherlands (2)


India

Congo


Syria

Mexico


Cape Colony

Angola


Argentina

Morocco


Brazil

Singapore

Ghana

Vietnam


Indonesia

Algeria


Nigeria

Match the following:




94. Unitary State

95. Federal State

96. Confederal State

97. Devolution

a. Canada

b. France

c. Germany

d. Mexico

e. Switzerland

f. United States

g. United Kingdom



Match the following:


98. model that demonstrates the transfer of resources from less developed to more developed countries

99. the area near a border, separating two countries or the extreme limits of a state

100. the node of a state, or the area Mackinder thought was important in global geopolitics

101. a portion of a state surrounded by the territory of another state

102. manipulating boundaries for political gain

103. the area Spykman thought was more important than the heartland in geopolitics

104. a real or imaginary line that separates two things

a. frontier

b. enclave

c. core-periphery

d. gerrymandering

e. boundary

f. rimland

g. heartland



105. The European Union, the Arab League and the United Nations are all examples of

a. pressure groups

b. nation-states

c. centrifugal forces

d. supranational organizations

e. federations



Label each boundary physical or cultural and give two examples:




boundary

physical or cultural

example

106. mountain









107. language









108. religion









109. river









110. geometric








111. Which of the following has fostered the most significant economic growth by eliminating import tariffs between member states?

a. European Union (EU)

b. Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC)

c. North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)

d. Association of Caribbean States (ACS)

e. United Nations (UN)
112. A major impact of World War II on the imperialist nations of the world was to

a. weaken them so that they granted independence to many colonies

b. strengthen their ties to most colonies around the world

c. make them more dependent on products from their colonies

d. increase their military presence in colonies

e. increase the number of countries that were competing to become imperialist


113. Which of the following is the best example of a nation-state in which the boundaries of the nation are very similar to the boundaries of the state?

a. Russia

b. Iraq

c. Iceland



d. Nigeria

114. The Kurds are considered to be a stateless nation because their homeland, Kurdistan, lies across the boundaries of the following states:

a. Greece, Turkey, Russia and Georgia

b. Iran, Azerbaijan, Afghanistan

c. Turkey, Armenia, Iran and Iraq

d. Syria, Iraq, Jordan and Israel


Most are islands

Most are relatively isolated

Most have extremely small populations

Most are remnants of empires


115. The set of statements above applies to which of the following?

a. the provinces of Canada

b. the world’s remaining dependencies

c. the breakaway regions of Spain

d. the global commons

e. the newly independent states of the 1990’s


116. A good example of a centripetal force in political geography is

a. the existence of difference language regions

b. rugged topography

c. religious diversity and conflict

d. a primate city

e. a poorly developed road network


117. Which of the following is the best example of a state with a compact shape?

a. Argentina

b. Burma

c. Poland

d. Indonesia

e. New Zealand


118. Most of Africa’s political boundaries were originally drawn by

a. seventeenth-century European explorers

b. European Colonial powers at the Berlin Conference

c. the Bandung Conference of 1955

d. decolonization movements of the 1950’s and 60’s

Unit V: Industry and Economic Geography
Label each of the following as bulk-reducing, bulk-gaining , footloose or Just-in-time:


119. soft-drink bottling

120. beer brewing

121. nickel smelting

122. baking

123. automobile assembly

124. auto parts manufacturing

125. call centers

126. cell phone manufacturing

127. tennis shoe manufacturing

Label each of the following as primary, secondary, tertiary, quaternary or quinary:




128. mining

129. baby food production

130. growing produce for urban markets

131. a credit card call center

132. Wall Street bank

president

133. IHHS librarian

134. making items to sell on Etsy

135. the Toyota plant in Kentucky

Indicate the country or countries:


136. The Four Asian Tigers
137. NAFTA
138. Maquiladoras
139. List three fossil-fuels
140. Top four fossil-fuel consumers
141. Top four oil-producing countries

142. All of the following contain major oil-producing EXCEPT the

a. Caspian Sea

b. North Sea

c. Persian Gulf

d. Gulf of Mexico

e. Gulf of California

143. The classic model of industrial location theory suggests that the primary consideration in the location of an industrial site is which of the following?

a. the institutional structure of the firm

b. the cost to produce the product

c. the cost of raw materials

d. the cost of transportation

e. the location of the market

144. Which of the following has contributed most to the deindustrialization of regions like the English Midlands and the North American Manufacturing Belt?

a. increased percentage of women in the labor force

b. competition from foreign imports

c. environmental legislation

d. the formation of free trade associations

e. the decline of labor unions
145. Contemporary manufacturing is characterized by

a. production facilities that are generally located as close as possible to the sites of raw material production

b. strong unions and localized involvement in all facets of the production process

c. spatial disaggregation of the production process

d. reliance on highly skilled labor at all phases of the production process

e. production facilities located close to railroads


146. The United Nations recognition of a state’s Exclusive Economic Zone allows the state to

a. establish economic free trade zones within the sovereign territory of other states

b. claim national economic jurisdiction over 200 nautical miles of water extending from its coast

c. limit importation of competitive goods and services from other countries

d. protect domestic production by imposing tariffs on all foreign-made products

147. The establishment of maquiladoras by U.S. corporations for the production of electronics components is an example of which of the following?

a. exploitation of union labor

b. industrialization

c. new international division of labor

d. tertiary economic activity

e. colonialism

148. Rostow’s Stage 1



Name & Describe


Corresponding stage on the DTM? Examples of countries?

149. Stage 2








150. Stage 3








151. Stage 4








152. Stage 5







Assume a stage 5 country and indicate if each of the following would be high or low:




153. literacy rate

154. CBR

155. CDR

156. RNI (or NIR)

157. life expectancy

158. informal sector jobs

159. pollution

160. IMR

161. GDP/GNI

162. The state of Florida earns greater revenues from the export of oranges than does the state of Georgia. This can be attributed to which of the following?

a. Florida has a comparative advantage as a producer of oranges

b. Georgia has a comparative advantage as a producer of oranges

c. Florida’s economy is primarily based on agricultural production



Match the following:
163. high terminal cost, high line cost, high route flexibility a. airplane

164. high terminal cost, low line cost, high route flexibility b. railroad

165. high terminal cost, low line cost, low route flexibility c. ship

166. low terminal cost, low line cost, high route flexibility d. truck


167. According to Alfred Weber, when too many businesses locate in one area, labor and transportation costs increase, which often leads to

a. agglomeration

b. deglomeration

c. sustainable development

d. an increase in footloose industries

e. post-industrialization


168. In most countries, per capita income is most closely correlated with

a. population growth

b. urbanization

c. literacy rates

d. location

e. oil production


169. A common criticism of Rostow’s modernization theory is that it

a. fails to recognize that rich nations often block the development of poor countries

b. discourages rich nations from providing foreign aid to poor countries

c. suggests that the causes of poverty lie almost entirely in the actions of rich nations

d. wrongly treats wealth as a zero-sum commodity in the world
Label the following as Core, Periphery or Semi-periphery:


170. Canada

171. France

172. South Africa

173. Netherlands

174. Brazil

175. Ghana

176. Niger

177. Japan

178. China

179. The most important factor that encourages modern factories to locate in suburban or rural areas rather than cities is

a. labor costs b. transportation costs c. agglomeration d. land costs

180. The basic premise of sustainable development is that

a. people living today not impair the ability of future generations to meet their needs

b. the ill effects of global warming must be contained

c. more serves of fossil fuels must be found and extracted

d. workers must be able to sue companies for damages done due to careless treatment of the environment

e. deindustrialization and deglomeration are needed in order to stimulate growth in rural areas
181. Rostow’s modernization theory and Wallerstein’s World-Systems theory are two theories that explain the process of economic development
A. Identify and explain two contrasting assumptions that these theories make about the process of economic development

B. Identify and explain one common criticism of Rostow’s theory

C. Identify and explain one common criticism of Wallerstein’s theory


Unit VI: Agriculture and Rural Land Use
Choose the one that does not belong:


182. increases in the amount of land under cultivation

Increases in the agricultural workforce

Increases in the use of energy and technology
183. plantation farming

hunting and gathering

subsistence agriculture
184. efficient transportation

corporately controlled farms

regionalized cuisine
185. factory farms

genetic engineering

high food prices

Green Revolution


186. soy beans

wheat


coffee

corn


rice

187. shifting agriculture

tropical climate

global warming

depletion of topsoil

commercial agriculture


188. terracing

pastoral nomadism

hunting and gathering

subsistence agriculture

shifting agriculture

189. Von Thunen model

milkshed

extensive grains

terracing

forest ring


190. Mediterranean

Palm Oil


Olives

Grapes


Figs


191. The production of only enough food to feed the farmer’s family with no significant surplus to sell is called

a. irrigation farming

b. truck farming

c. seed agriculture

d. subsistence agriculture

e. shifting agriculture


192. In which of the following countries is plantation farming LEAST likely to be practiced?

a. Brazil

b. Nigeria

c. Thailand

d. India

e. Belgium


193. According to Carl Sauer, which of the following is true about plant domestication?

a. it originated in marginal areas with limited food resources

b. it first occurred in diversified habitats with a variety of species

c. it was developed by farmers who were starving and desperate for food

d. it owes its origins to the domestication of animals

e. it was at first dependent on irrigation




194. Labor-intensive intertillage is often practiced in

a. the Canadian wheat belt

b. Southeast Asia

c. the Turkish highlands

d. the English countryside

e. New Zealand


Classify the following types of agriculture as subsistence (intensive or extensive), or commercial, and name one place or region where it can be found:


Type of Agriculture

Subsistence/Commercial

Where?

195. Wet Rice Cultivation









196. Cattle Ranching








197. Shifting Cultivation – slash & burn








198. Pastoral Nomadism









199. Mixed Crop & Livestock Farming







200. Which of the following is the essential requirement of lowland rice production?

a. cheap labor

b. year-round growing season

c. proximity to market

d. abundant water

e. alluvial soil
201. Which of the following agricultural types occupies the largest percentage of the world’s total land area? (which are extensive and very common globally?)

a. Plantation agriculture and specialized horticulture

b. Cattle ranching and Mediterranean agriculture

c. Wheat farming and dairying

d. Shifting cultivation and nomadic herding

e. Intensive rice cultivation and subsistence farming


202. Which is the best example of extensive land use in agriculture?

a. a cattle feedlot

b. a sheep ranch

c. an egg-production facility

d. a greenhouse

e. a backyard garden

203. Modern improvements in transportation systems have impacted agriculture significantly by

a. allowing almost all land surfaces to be farmed

b. expanding the role of agribusiness in producing food

c. encouraging more people to farm for a living

d. encouraging more people to buy local produce
204. According to Carl Sauer, seed agriculture developed from which three hearths in the Eastern Hemisphere?

a. SW Asia, S. China, W. Europe

b. SW Asia, Sub-Saharan Africa, W. Europe

c. SW Asia, N. China and Ethiopia

d. SE Asia, S. China and Japan

e. W. India, Central Asia, SE Asia


205. According to Von Thunen, which of the following type of agricultural activity is most likely to take place in Ring 1, the ring closes to the city?

a. wheat farming

b. animal grazing

c. dairy farming

d. forestry
206. The diffusion of crops, other plants and animals from the Americas to the Eastern Hemisphere during the 1500’s was called the

a. Indian Ocean Exchange

b. Mercantile System

c. Putting Out System

d. Columbian Exchange
207. The practice of primogeniture usually results in land parcels that are

a. small with scattered ownership

b. large and tended individually

c. accessible to transportation

d. marked by physical boundaries
208. The shift of the farm as the center of production to a position as just one step in a multi-phase industrial process that begins on the farms and ends up on the consumer’s table is called

a. biotechnology

b. subsistence agriculture

c. industrial agriculture

d. mercantilism

e. truck farming


209. Compared to N. American ranchers, commercial ranchers in the Pampas of Aregentina, Uruguay and S. Brazil are more likely to:

a. raise mostly sheep

b. lease their grazing land

c. rely on feedlots

d. raise livestock primarily for export

e. use practices developed by indigenous people


210. List two pros and two cons of the Green Revolution:

Unit VII: Cities & Urban Land Use


Match the following:
211. export primarily to consumers outside the city

212. sell to people within the settlement

213. what Christaller’s hexagons explain

214. related to talent

215. center of Latin American cities

216. provided to people by government

217. downtown

218. illegal occupation of a residential district

a. CBD

b. non-basic industry



c. central plaza

d. basic industry

e. human capital

f. public housing

g. squatter settlement

h. urban hierarchy




219. Which of the following is true of an edge city?

a. it is located on the edge of a lake, river or other physical feature

b. it is close to bankruptcy

c. it is an outlet for a region’s trade

d. it is increasingly used for heavy industry

e. it has a large amount of recently developed retail and office space




220. Which of the following is a forward capital?

a. Lima b. Brasilia c. London d. Cairo e. Seoul

221. Central Place theory describes the

a. spatial patterns of urban and outlying areas based on the flow of goods and services

b. tendency of different ethnic groups to congregate in a single location

c. tendency of civilizations to form around certain natural features

d. outward radiation of cultural patterns from a central place

e. tendency of wealth to concentrate in urban core areas


222. An increase in the demand for a city’s goods and services produces rapid in-migration. Which of the following explains why a city often does not experience a corresponding out migration when the demand for its goods and services declines?

a. Most countries have unemployment benefit programs designed to keep workers in place to provide a reservoir of cheap labor

b. Most countries have strict controls on migration that limit intercity movement

c. Unemployed workers have skills that may not easily transfer to new cities

d. Family and emotional bonds to the city my limit workers’ mobility

e. The decline in demand for the city’s goods and services indicates that the country’s entire economy is in decline, therefore workers have no place to go


223. The development of high-speed rail lines, highways and communications systems has created cities that seem to be apart from the traditional central-place hierarchies because they have developed complementary functions. Which of the following is an example of these so-called network cities?

a. London-Birmingham-Liverpool

b. Hong Kong-Shanghai-Beijing

c. Moscow-St. Petersburg – Kiev

d. Cleveland-Toledo-Chicago

e. Tokyo – Osaka-Nagasaki




Study the charts and graphs on the next page. Answer more practice questions here:
http://www.learnerator.com/ap-human-geography
You can do it!

Last Section: Charts, Graphs and General Global Knowledge
70.9% of the world's surface is water, 29.1% is land
Top ten largest landmasses:

Asia

Africa

North America

South America

Antarctica

Europe

Australia

Greenland

New Guinea

Borneo

44,568,500 sq km

30.065 million sq km

24.473 million sq km

17.819 million sq km

14 million sq km

9.948 million sq km

7,741,220 sq km

2,166,086 sq km

785,753 sq km

751,929 sq km


46 nations and other areas are landlocked, these include: Afghanistan, Andorra, Armenia, Austria, Azerbaijan, Belarus, Bhutan, Bolivia, Botswana, Burkina Faso, Burundi, Central African Republic, Chad, Czech Republic, Ethiopia, Holy See (Vatican City), Hungary, Kazakhstan, Kosovo, Kyrgyzstan, Laos, Lesotho, Liechtenstein, Luxembourg, Macedonia, Malawi, Mali, Moldova, Mongolia, Nepal, Niger, Paraguay, Rwanda, San Marino, Serbia, Slovakia, South Sudan, Swaziland, Switzerland, Tajikistan, Turkmenistan, Uganda, Uzbekistan, West Bank, Zambia, Zimbabwe; two of these, Liechtenstein and Uzbekistan, are doubly landlocked
Land Claims: a variety of situations exist, but in general, most countries make the following claims measured from the mean low-tide baseline as described in the 1982 UN Convention on the Law of the Sea: territorial sea - 12 nm, contiguous zone - 24 nm, and exclusive economic zone - 200 nm; additional zones provide for exploitation of continental shelf resources and an exclusive fishing zone; boundary situations with neighboring states prevent many countries from extending their fishing or economic zones to a full 200 nm
Global Land Use: arable land: 10.43%, permanent crops planted on: 1.15% of land
Drinking Water: unimproved: urban: 3.7% of population, rural: 19.1% of population, total: 11.1% of population (2011 est.)

Literacy - definition: age 15 and over can read and write

total population: 84.1%

male: 88.6%

female: 79.7%

note: almost three-quarters of the world's 775 million illiterate adults are found in only ten countries (in descending order: India, China, Pakistan, Bangladesh, Nigeria, Ethiopia, Egypt, Brazil, Indonesia, and the Democratic Republic of the Congo); of all the illiterate adults in the world, two-thirds are women; extremely low literacy rates are concentrated in South and West Asia and Sub-Saharan Africa (2010 est.)

Global: GDP - per capita (PPP):



$13,100 (2013 est.)

$12,800 (2012 est.)

$12,600 (2011 est.)

note: data are in 2013 US dollars








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