Unit III: Cultural Patterns and Processes
46. Classify each of the following religions as monotheistic or polytheistic, universalizing or ethnic, and include their hearth region, then rank them according to number of followers
Religion
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Mono/Poly
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Ethnic/Universalizing
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Hearth Region
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Buddhism
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Hinduism
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Islam
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Judaism
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Mormonism
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Orthodox Christianity
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Protestantism
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Roman Catholicism
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Animism
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Match the following (can be used more than once or not at all):
47. example of linguistic fragmentation
48. an example of a lingua franca
49. the language with the most speakers (as a first language)
50. a language in the Sino-Tibetan family
51. A language in the Indo-European family
a. Mandarin
b. Swahili
c. Nigeria
d. Haitian Creole
e. Hindi
52. Which of the following is the belief that one’s own culture is the best or better than other cultures?
a. Ethos
b. Prejudice
c. Ethnocentrism
d. Acculturation
53. The Indo-European language family includes the major languages of Europe and those dominant in all the following regions EXCEPT
a. Russia
b. Northern India
c. Iran
d. Eastern and Southern Australia
e. Central Asia
54. Which of the following is an example of a cultural landscape?
a. coastal wetland
b. cloud forest
c. stand of mangrove trees
d. eroded shoreline
e. Adobe ruins
Classify each of the following as folk culture or popular culture:
55. the Amish 56. Blue jeans 57. McDonalds 58. Goetta
59. Small scale 60. Urban 61. Rural 62. Cultural homogeneity
63. slow change 64. The internet 65. Anime 66. Relocation diffusion
67. Which of the following correctly sequences the continuum from language family to dialect?
a. Afro-Asiatic, Semitic, Arabic, Berber
b. Sino-Tibetan, Sinitic, Mandarin, Chinese
c. Indo-European, Indo-Iranian, Hindi, Bengali
d. Indo-European, Germanic, English, Midland-Northern
68. The largest number of immigrants to the United States every year is from
a. Guatemala b. Haiti c. Mexico d. Cuba e. Dominican R.
69. Which of the following aspects of diffusion of Western culture threaten non-Western ways of life?
I. loss of traditional values
II. subjugation of women
III. Western control of media
IV. alteration of traditional landscapes
V. pollution
a. I and II only
b. I and III only
c. I, II and IV only
d. I, III, IV and V only
e. I, II, III, IV, and V
70. Which of the following countries has the largest number of Sunni Muslims?
a. Saudi Arabia
b. Bangladesh
c. Egypt
d. Iran
e. Indonesia
71. Which of the following religions is predominant in the states of Wisconsin, Minnesota and North Dakota?
a. Catholic b. Mormon c. Lutheran d. Baptist e. Methodist
72. According to the figure above, which of the following choices best describes the changes in interaction as distances increases?
a. it remains unchanged
b. it increases at first, then decreases
c. it increases
d. it changes randomly
e. it decreases
73. Match the Protestant denomination with the correct percentage of the total population that its adherents represent:
Lutheran
Episcopalian
Presbyterian
Baptist
Pentecostal
Methodist
a. 16%
b. 7%
c. 6%
d. 3%
e. 2%
f. 1%
74. Match the religion with the correct percentage of adherents globally:
Buddhism
Islam
Hinduism
Christianity
Judaism
Animist/Shamanist Traditional
Nonreligious
a. 33%
b. 21%
c. 16%
d. 14%
e. 6%
e. 6%
f. .22%
75. Which of the following majority Muslim countries has a secular government?
a. Saudi Arabia b. Iran c. Turkey d. Afghanistan e. Yemen
76. Identify each of the following as part of material or non-material culture:
Gregorian chant Muslim prayer rug a Cathedral
Liberty, Equality, Fraternity! A cul-de-sac a food taboo
77. Put an x by the three MOST WIDELY SPOKEN languages globally:
_Arabic _English _Mandarin _Hindi _Spanish _Bengali
Unit IV: Political Organization of Space
78. Put the following in order from the largest to the smallest: census tract, county, municipality, nation-state, province, empire
79. Europeans’ primary motivations for colonization:
G_______, G________________, G___________
Match the following:
80. nation-state
81. multi-nation state
82. multi-state nation
83. stateless nation
84. unrecognized state
a. Korea
b. Kurds
c. Palestine
d. Indonesia
e. Japan
Match the following:
85. compact state
86. elongated state
87. prorupted state
88. perforated state
89. fragmented state
90. landlocked state
91. microstate
a. Afghanistan
b. Indonesia
c. Nicaragua
d. South Africa
e. Vatican City
f. Vietnam
92. Name two forward capitals (country and new capital city)
93. Colony sorting. The number tells you how many for that country. Each country will have at least three different continents represented:
Britain (4) France (4) Spain (3) Portugal (2) Netherlands (2)
India
Congo
Syria
Mexico
Cape Colony
Angola
Argentina
Morocco
Brazil
Singapore
Ghana
Vietnam
Indonesia
Algeria
Nigeria
94. Unitary State
95. Federal State
96. Confederal State
97. Devolution
a. Canada
b. France
c. Germany
d. Mexico
e. Switzerland
f. United States
g. United Kingdom
Match the following:
98. model that demonstrates the transfer of resources from less developed to more developed countries
99. the area near a border, separating two countries or the extreme limits of a state
100. the node of a state, or the area Mackinder thought was important in global geopolitics
101. a portion of a state surrounded by the territory of another state
102. manipulating boundaries for political gain
103. the area Spykman thought was more important than the heartland in geopolitics
104. a real or imaginary line that separates two things
a. frontier
b. enclave
c. core-periphery
d. gerrymandering
e. boundary
f. rimland
g. heartland
105. The European Union, the Arab League and the United Nations are all examples of
a. pressure groups
b. nation-states
c. centrifugal forces
d. supranational organizations
e. federations
Label each boundary physical or cultural and give two examples:
boundary
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physical or cultural
|
example
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106. mountain
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107. language
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108. religion
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109. river
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110. geometric
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111. Which of the following has fostered the most significant economic growth by eliminating import tariffs between member states?
a. European Union (EU)
b. Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC)
c. North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)
d. Association of Caribbean States (ACS)
e. United Nations (UN)
112. A major impact of World War II on the imperialist nations of the world was to
a. weaken them so that they granted independence to many colonies
b. strengthen their ties to most colonies around the world
c. make them more dependent on products from their colonies
d. increase their military presence in colonies
e. increase the number of countries that were competing to become imperialist
113. Which of the following is the best example of a nation-state in which the boundaries of the nation are very similar to the boundaries of the state?
a. Russia
b. Iraq
c. Iceland
d. Nigeria
114. The Kurds are considered to be a stateless nation because their homeland, Kurdistan, lies across the boundaries of the following states:
a. Greece, Turkey, Russia and Georgia
b. Iran, Azerbaijan, Afghanistan
c. Turkey, Armenia, Iran and Iraq
d. Syria, Iraq, Jordan and Israel
Most are islands
Most are relatively isolated
Most have extremely small populations
Most are remnants of empires
115. The set of statements above applies to which of the following?
a. the provinces of Canada
b. the world’s remaining dependencies
c. the breakaway regions of Spain
d. the global commons
e. the newly independent states of the 1990’s
116. A good example of a centripetal force in political geography is
a. the existence of difference language regions
b. rugged topography
c. religious diversity and conflict
d. a primate city
e. a poorly developed road network
117. Which of the following is the best example of a state with a compact shape?
a. Argentina
b. Burma
c. Poland
d. Indonesia
e. New Zealand
118. Most of Africa’s political boundaries were originally drawn by
a. seventeenth-century European explorers
b. European Colonial powers at the Berlin Conference
c. the Bandung Conference of 1955
d. decolonization movements of the 1950’s and 60’s
Unit V: Industry and Economic Geography
Label each of the following as bulk-reducing, bulk-gaining , footloose or Just-in-time:
119. soft-drink bottling
120. beer brewing
121. nickel smelting
122. baking
123. automobile assembly
124. auto parts manufacturing
125. call centers
126. cell phone manufacturing
127. tennis shoe manufacturing
Label each of the following as primary, secondary, tertiary, quaternary or quinary:
128. mining
129. baby food production
130. growing produce for urban markets
131. a credit card call center
132. Wall Street bank
president
133. IHHS librarian
134. making items to sell on Etsy
135. the Toyota plant in Kentucky
Indicate the country or countries:
136. The Four Asian Tigers
137. NAFTA
138. Maquiladoras
139. List three fossil-fuels
140. Top four fossil-fuel consumers
141. Top four oil-producing countries
142. All of the following contain major oil-producing EXCEPT the
a. Caspian Sea
b. North Sea
c. Persian Gulf
d. Gulf of Mexico
e. Gulf of California
143. The classic model of industrial location theory suggests that the primary consideration in the location of an industrial site is which of the following?
a. the institutional structure of the firm
b. the cost to produce the product
c. the cost of raw materials
d. the cost of transportation
e. the location of the market
144. Which of the following has contributed most to the deindustrialization of regions like the English Midlands and the North American Manufacturing Belt?
a. increased percentage of women in the labor force
b. competition from foreign imports
c. environmental legislation
d. the formation of free trade associations
e. the decline of labor unions
145. Contemporary manufacturing is characterized by
a. production facilities that are generally located as close as possible to the sites of raw material production
b. strong unions and localized involvement in all facets of the production process
c. spatial disaggregation of the production process
d. reliance on highly skilled labor at all phases of the production process
e. production facilities located close to railroads
146. The United Nations recognition of a state’s Exclusive Economic Zone allows the state to
a. establish economic free trade zones within the sovereign territory of other states
b. claim national economic jurisdiction over 200 nautical miles of water extending from its coast
c. limit importation of competitive goods and services from other countries
d. protect domestic production by imposing tariffs on all foreign-made products
147. The establishment of maquiladoras by U.S. corporations for the production of electronics components is an example of which of the following?
a. exploitation of union labor
b. industrialization
c. new international division of labor
d. tertiary economic activity
e. colonialism
148. Rostow’s Stage 1
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Name & Describe
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Corresponding stage on the DTM? Examples of countries?
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149. Stage 2
|
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150. Stage 3
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151. Stage 4
|
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152. Stage 5
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Assume a stage 5 country and indicate if each of the following would be high or low:
153. literacy rate
154. CBR
155. CDR
156. RNI (or NIR)
157. life expectancy
158. informal sector jobs
159. pollution
160. IMR
161. GDP/GNI
162. The state of Florida earns greater revenues from the export of oranges than does the state of Georgia. This can be attributed to which of the following?
a. Florida has a comparative advantage as a producer of oranges
b. Georgia has a comparative advantage as a producer of oranges
c. Florida’s economy is primarily based on agricultural production
Match the following:
163. high terminal cost, high line cost, high route flexibility a. airplane
164. high terminal cost, low line cost, high route flexibility b. railroad
165. high terminal cost, low line cost, low route flexibility c. ship
166. low terminal cost, low line cost, high route flexibility d. truck
167. According to Alfred Weber, when too many businesses locate in one area, labor and transportation costs increase, which often leads to
a. agglomeration
b. deglomeration
c. sustainable development
d. an increase in footloose industries
e. post-industrialization
168. In most countries, per capita income is most closely correlated with
a. population growth
b. urbanization
c. literacy rates
d. location
e. oil production
169. A common criticism of Rostow’s modernization theory is that it
a. fails to recognize that rich nations often block the development of poor countries
b. discourages rich nations from providing foreign aid to poor countries
c. suggests that the causes of poverty lie almost entirely in the actions of rich nations
d. wrongly treats wealth as a zero-sum commodity in the world
Label the following as Core, Periphery or Semi-periphery:
170. Canada
171. France
172. South Africa
173. Netherlands
174. Brazil
175. Ghana
176. Niger
177. Japan
178. China
179. The most important factor that encourages modern factories to locate in suburban or rural areas rather than cities is
a. labor costs b. transportation costs c. agglomeration d. land costs
180. The basic premise of sustainable development is that
a. people living today not impair the ability of future generations to meet their needs
b. the ill effects of global warming must be contained
c. more serves of fossil fuels must be found and extracted
d. workers must be able to sue companies for damages done due to careless treatment of the environment
e. deindustrialization and deglomeration are needed in order to stimulate growth in rural areas
181. Rostow’s modernization theory and Wallerstein’s World-Systems theory are two theories that explain the process of economic development
A. Identify and explain two contrasting assumptions that these theories make about the process of economic development
B. Identify and explain one common criticism of Rostow’s theory
C. Identify and explain one common criticism of Wallerstein’s theory
Unit VI: Agriculture and Rural Land Use
Choose the one that does not belong:
182. increases in the amount of land under cultivation
Increases in the agricultural workforce
Increases in the use of energy and technology
183. plantation farming
hunting and gathering
subsistence agriculture
184. efficient transportation
corporately controlled farms
regionalized cuisine
185. factory farms
genetic engineering
high food prices
Green Revolution
186. soy beans
wheat
coffee
corn
rice
187. shifting agriculture
tropical climate
global warming
depletion of topsoil
commercial agriculture
188. terracing
pastoral nomadism
hunting and gathering
subsistence agriculture
shifting agriculture
189. Von Thunen model
milkshed
extensive grains
terracing
forest ring
190. Mediterranean
Palm Oil
Olives
Grapes
Figs
191. The production of only enough food to feed the farmer’s family with no significant surplus to sell is called
a. irrigation farming
b. truck farming
c. seed agriculture
d. subsistence agriculture
e. shifting agriculture
192. In which of the following countries is plantation farming LEAST likely to be practiced?
a. Brazil
b. Nigeria
c. Thailand
d. India
e. Belgium
193. According to Carl Sauer, which of the following is true about plant domestication?
a. it originated in marginal areas with limited food resources
b. it first occurred in diversified habitats with a variety of species
c. it was developed by farmers who were starving and desperate for food
d. it owes its origins to the domestication of animals
e. it was at first dependent on irrigation
194. Labor-intensive intertillage is often practiced in
a. the Canadian wheat belt
b. Southeast Asia
c. the Turkish highlands
d. the English countryside
e. New Zealand
Classify the following types of agriculture as subsistence (intensive or extensive), or commercial, and name one place or region where it can be found:
Type of Agriculture
|
Subsistence/Commercial
|
Where?
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195. Wet Rice Cultivation
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196. Cattle Ranching
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197. Shifting Cultivation – slash & burn
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198. Pastoral Nomadism
|
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199. Mixed Crop & Livestock Farming
|
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200. Which of the following is the essential requirement of lowland rice production?
a. cheap labor
b. year-round growing season
c. proximity to market
d. abundant water
e. alluvial soil
201. Which of the following agricultural types occupies the largest percentage of the world’s total land area? (which are extensive and very common globally?)
a. Plantation agriculture and specialized horticulture
b. Cattle ranching and Mediterranean agriculture
c. Wheat farming and dairying
d. Shifting cultivation and nomadic herding
e. Intensive rice cultivation and subsistence farming
202. Which is the best example of extensive land use in agriculture?
a. a cattle feedlot
b. a sheep ranch
c. an egg-production facility
d. a greenhouse
e. a backyard garden
203. Modern improvements in transportation systems have impacted agriculture significantly by
a. allowing almost all land surfaces to be farmed
b. expanding the role of agribusiness in producing food
c. encouraging more people to farm for a living
d. encouraging more people to buy local produce
204. According to Carl Sauer, seed agriculture developed from which three hearths in the Eastern Hemisphere?
a. SW Asia, S. China, W. Europe
b. SW Asia, Sub-Saharan Africa, W. Europe
c. SW Asia, N. China and Ethiopia
d. SE Asia, S. China and Japan
e. W. India, Central Asia, SE Asia
205. According to Von Thunen, which of the following type of agricultural activity is most likely to take place in Ring 1, the ring closes to the city?
a. wheat farming
b. animal grazing
c. dairy farming
d. forestry
206. The diffusion of crops, other plants and animals from the Americas to the Eastern Hemisphere during the 1500’s was called the
a. Indian Ocean Exchange
b. Mercantile System
c. Putting Out System
d. Columbian Exchange
207. The practice of primogeniture usually results in land parcels that are
a. small with scattered ownership
b. large and tended individually
c. accessible to transportation
d. marked by physical boundaries
208. The shift of the farm as the center of production to a position as just one step in a multi-phase industrial process that begins on the farms and ends up on the consumer’s table is called
a. biotechnology
b. subsistence agriculture
c. industrial agriculture
d. mercantilism
e. truck farming
209. Compared to N. American ranchers, commercial ranchers in the Pampas of Aregentina, Uruguay and S. Brazil are more likely to:
a. raise mostly sheep
b. lease their grazing land
c. rely on feedlots
d. raise livestock primarily for export
e. use practices developed by indigenous people
210. List two pros and two cons of the Green Revolution:
Unit VII: Cities & Urban Land Use
Match the following:
211. export primarily to consumers outside the city
212. sell to people within the settlement
213. what Christaller’s hexagons explain
214. related to talent
215. center of Latin American cities
216. provided to people by government
217. downtown
218. illegal occupation of a residential district
a. CBD
b. non-basic industry
c. central plaza
d. basic industry
e. human capital
f. public housing
g. squatter settlement
h. urban hierarchy
219. Which of the following is true of an edge city?
a. it is located on the edge of a lake, river or other physical feature
b. it is close to bankruptcy
c. it is an outlet for a region’s trade
d. it is increasingly used for heavy industry
e. it has a large amount of recently developed retail and office space
220. Which of the following is a forward capital?
a. Lima b. Brasilia c. London d. Cairo e. Seoul
221. Central Place theory describes the
a. spatial patterns of urban and outlying areas based on the flow of goods and services
b. tendency of different ethnic groups to congregate in a single location
c. tendency of civilizations to form around certain natural features
d. outward radiation of cultural patterns from a central place
e. tendency of wealth to concentrate in urban core areas
222. An increase in the demand for a city’s goods and services produces rapid in-migration. Which of the following explains why a city often does not experience a corresponding out migration when the demand for its goods and services declines?
a. Most countries have unemployment benefit programs designed to keep workers in place to provide a reservoir of cheap labor
b. Most countries have strict controls on migration that limit intercity movement
c. Unemployed workers have skills that may not easily transfer to new cities
d. Family and emotional bonds to the city my limit workers’ mobility
e. The decline in demand for the city’s goods and services indicates that the country’s entire economy is in decline, therefore workers have no place to go
223. The development of high-speed rail lines, highways and communications systems has created cities that seem to be apart from the traditional central-place hierarchies because they have developed complementary functions. Which of the following is an example of these so-called network cities?
a. London-Birmingham-Liverpool
b. Hong Kong-Shanghai-Beijing
c. Moscow-St. Petersburg – Kiev
d. Cleveland-Toledo-Chicago
e. Tokyo – Osaka-Nagasaki
Study the charts and graphs on the next page. Answer more practice questions here:
http://www.learnerator.com/ap-human-geography
You can do it!
Last Section: Charts, Graphs and General Global Knowledge
70.9% of the world's surface is water, 29.1% is land
Top ten largest landmasses:
Asia
|
Africa
|
North America
|
South America
|
Antarctica
|
Europe
|
Australia
|
Greenland
|
New Guinea
|
Borneo
|
44,568,500 sq km
|
30.065 million sq km
|
24.473 million sq km
|
17.819 million sq km
|
14 million sq km
|
9.948 million sq km
|
7,741,220 sq km
|
2,166,086 sq km
|
785,753 sq km
|
751,929 sq km
|
46 nations and other areas are landlocked, these include: Afghanistan, Andorra, Armenia, Austria, Azerbaijan, Belarus, Bhutan, Bolivia, Botswana, Burkina Faso, Burundi, Central African Republic, Chad, Czech Republic, Ethiopia, Holy See (Vatican City), Hungary, Kazakhstan, Kosovo, Kyrgyzstan, Laos, Lesotho, Liechtenstein, Luxembourg, Macedonia, Malawi, Mali, Moldova, Mongolia, Nepal, Niger, Paraguay, Rwanda, San Marino, Serbia, Slovakia, South Sudan, Swaziland, Switzerland, Tajikistan, Turkmenistan, Uganda, Uzbekistan, West Bank, Zambia, Zimbabwe; two of these, Liechtenstein and Uzbekistan, are doubly landlocked
Land Claims: a variety of situations exist, but in general, most countries make the following claims measured from the mean low-tide baseline as described in the 1982 UN Convention on the Law of the Sea: territorial sea - 12 nm, contiguous zone - 24 nm, and exclusive economic zone - 200 nm; additional zones provide for exploitation of continental shelf resources and an exclusive fishing zone; boundary situations with neighboring states prevent many countries from extending their fishing or economic zones to a full 200 nm
Global Land Use: arable land: 10.43%, permanent crops planted on: 1.15% of land
Drinking Water: unimproved: urban: 3.7% of population, rural: 19.1% of population, total: 11.1% of population (2011 est.)
Literacy - definition: age 15 and over can read and write
total population: 84.1%
male: 88.6%
female: 79.7%
note: almost three-quarters of the world's 775 million illiterate adults are found in only ten countries (in descending order: India, China, Pakistan, Bangladesh, Nigeria, Ethiopia, Egypt, Brazil, Indonesia, and the Democratic Republic of the Congo); of all the illiterate adults in the world, two-thirds are women; extremely low literacy rates are concentrated in South and West Asia and Sub-Saharan Africa (2010 est.)
Global: GDP - per capita (PPP):
|
|
$13,100 (2013 est.)
$12,800 (2012 est.)
$12,600 (2011 est.)
note: data are in 2013 US dollars
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