Marketing 140: Exam #3 Chapters 10, 11, 15
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| Marketing 140: Exam #3 Chapters 10, 11, 15
1. The _____ is the starting point in creating a marketing mix. a. price
b. product c. distribution channel d. promotional media e. production line 2. _____ products are purchased with little shopping effort. These products typically are purchased regularly, usually with little planning, and require wide distribution. a. convenience b. specialty c. branded shopping d. unbranded shopping e. generic 3. Which of the following is the best example of a convenience product? a. the purchase of an engagement ring b. the weekly purchase of Entrepreneur magazine c. a one-of-a-kind bird bath for the garden d. a piano stool for the new piano e. the annual vacation cruise 4. _____ products are searched for extensively, and substitutes are not acceptable. These products may be quite expensive, and often distribution is limited. a. exclusive shopping b. homogeneous convenience c. branded shopping d. specialty e. heterogeneous convenience 5. When deciding on distribution plans for specialty products, companies generally ensure that the items are: a. made available only as private brands b. made available in a large number of stores in a geographic area c. made available only through the mail d. distributed to a considerable number of stores in a geographic area e. distributed to only a few stores in the geographic area 6. There are a number of detergents marketed under the Tide brand including detergent with and without fabric softener, with and without bleach, with various pleasing smells, and fragrance-free. The large variety of detergents marketed under the Tide brand is an example of: a. marketing mix b. product line c. product mix d. product equity e. mix consistency 7. Which of the following is an example of a product modification? a. lowering the price of textbooks b. dropping a product from the product line c. changing the color of a laundry detergent d. changing the amount of management time spent overseeing production e. increasing the number of distribution outlets 8. Apple Computer, Inc., is a multinational corporation that creates consumer electronics, personal computers, computer software, and commercial servers. Apple's core product lines are the iPhone smart phone, iPad tablet computer, iPod portable media players, and Macintosh computer line. Apples success is largely attributed to _____________. a. repositioning product mixes b. simple product line assortment c. cannibalization d. channel disintermediation e. demarketing international brands 9. Arm & Hammer is the number one brand of deodorant worldwide. Since it was launched in the 1960s, it has added an antiperspirant, a stick deodorant, deodorant wipes, and Arm & Hammer for Men. These additions are examples of: a. product line extensions b. product portfolio width adjustments c. product item contractions d. SBU expansions 10. A consumer who consistently and repeatedly purchases the same brand is said to have: a. brand loyalty b. product equity c. product loyalty d. product repetition e. store loyalty 11. Mary wants the Coca-Cola Barbie by Mattel for her birthday. This Mattel product contains items with the Coca-Cola trademark, and Barbie is wearing an outfit in Coca-Cola red and white. Because both brands are receiving equal treatment, this is most likely an example of: a. cooperative branding b. ingredient branding c. umbrella branding d. complementary branding e. family branding 12. A name, term, symbol, design, or combination thereof that identifies a seller’s products and differentiates them from competitors’ products is known as a ___________. a. brand
b. positioning c. Competitive advantage d. logo e. promotion 13. A _____ is a legal term indicating the owner's exclusive right to use a brand name or other identifying mark. a. trademark b. patent c. brand
d. private brand e. right of warranty 14. You have to convince your boss that packaging will be the key to increasing sales of the company's new line of instant pudding mixes, so you tell him the packaging: a. will cause no environmental damage b. allows products to be shelved more prominently in the store c. conforms to government regulations d. can be used to help promote the product e. all of the above 15. The benefits of branding include: a. product identification, repeat sales, greater distribution b. higher pricing, lower margins, greater profits c. channel distribution, repeat sales, new product sales d. product identification, repeat sales, competitor loyalty e. new product sales, repeat sales, product identification 16. Dr. DRE Beats recently changed its product to have a variety of styles and colors to target different markets tastes and preferences, the action could be classified as a(n): a. repositioning strategy b. new product line c. style modification d. discontinuous innovation e. revision to future products 17. Three factors that often motivate firms to reposition established brands: a. changing demographics, increased profits, changes in social factors b. declining sales, new product development, aging population c. changes in social environment, consumer taste preference, extinction d. New product development, commercialization, environmental changes e. None of the above 18. The first stage of the new-product development process is: a. screening and concept testing b. establishing the new-product strategy c. exploring opportunities d. developing a business analysis e. the building of a prototype 19. _____ is a process where a group thinks of as many ways to vary a product or solve a problem as possible without considering the practicality of the ideas. a. new-product brain dumping b. screening c. a focus-group interview d. brainstorming e. diffusion 20. _____ is the first filter in the new-product development process. It serves to eliminate new-product ideas that are inconsistent with the organization's new-product strategy or are obviously inappropriate for some other reason. a. applied diffusion b. introductory diffusion c. business analysis d. test marketing e. idea screening 21. The screening and concept testing stage of the new-product development process is used to: a. eliminate undesirable ideas and gauge consumer acceptance b. refine the promotion campaign to be used with the new product c. determine the potential profits to be gained from the new product d. determine how long the test market should be run e. generate new-product ideas 22. In the _____ stage of new-product development, preliminary demand, cost, sales, and profitability estimates are made. a. prototype screening b. idea generation c. concept testing d. post-brainstorming e. business analysis 23. Crest, has decided to introduce its 1-hour express whitening strips in four cities and to closely monitor the reactions of consumers to the product and marketing program. Crest is going to use: a. city marketing b. test marketing c. packaging, branding and innovation d. simultaneous product development e. focus groups 24. The final stage in the new-product development process is: a. product testing b. market testing c. commercialization d. product prototyping e. simulated marketing 25. In the long run, products fail because of a poor match between: a. advertising and personal selling b. limited resources and unlimited consumer wants c. the marketing mix and physical distribution d. product characteristics and consumer needs e. prices and consumer demand 26. The process by which the adoption of an innovation spreads is _____. This is the spread of a new idea from its source of invention or creation to its ultimate users or adopters. a. diffusion b. circulation c. transmission d. dissemination e. dispersion 27. _____ are eager and usually first to try new ideas and products. They typically have higher incomes, are better educated, and are more cosmopolitan than other category. a. Early adopters b. Innovators c. Early majority d. Late majority e. Laggards 28. The _____ adopt a product because most of their friends have already done so, and their adoption is usually the result of pressure to conform because they rely on group norms. a. laggards b. early adopters c. early majority d. innovators 29. Razor scooters gained instant popularity because walkers and runners frequently saw people on the scooters zipping by them and having fun. This information suggests the adoption rate of the Razor scooter was most affected by which product characteristic? a. complexity b. experimental c. relative advantage d. observability e. compatibility 30. Why did Life Savers venture into the carbonated drink category fail? a. poor product packaging design b. cannibalization of candy category c. customers felt they were drinking liquid candy d. not enough flavor alternatives e. priced too high 31. During the growth stage of the product life cycle: a. increasing rate of sales b. entrance of competitors c. initial healthy profits d. aggressive advertising of the differences between brands e. all of the above 32. A long-run drop in sales signals the beginning of which stage in the product life cycle? a. laggard stage b. saturation stage c. deterioration stage d. decline stage e. decay stage 33. Which of the following products is most likely to be in the decline stage of its product life cycle? a. cookie mixes b. smart watches c. driving apps d. funeral caskets e. DVD players 34. Which of the following statements about the product life cycle (PLC) is true? a. The PLC is especially useful as a forecasting tool. b. The PLC concept encourages marketing managers to think proactively. c. Almost all sales in the maturity and decline stages of the PLC represent repeat purchasing. d. The relationship between the adopter categories and the stages of the PLC are well understood. e. All of the statements about the PLC are true. 35. A smart promotional strategy during a products growth stage would be to: a. phase out advertising completely and focus on new product introduction b. advertising aggressively and often to stimulate demand c. stop all promotional activity during this stage of the product life cycle d. stabilize prices at extremely low levels e. eliminate unprofitable models 36. An effective product strategy during the decline stages of a product life cycle would be to: a. eliminate unprofitable models b. use word of mouth promotions only c. develop relationships with new shipper and suppliers d. increase prices to make up for slow sales e. hire a well-known celebrity to promote the declining product 37. Which category of adopters would most likely purchase a product during the introduction phase of the PLC. a. early majority and innovators b. innovators and early adopters c. laggards and innovators d. late majority and early adopters e. all categories of adopters 38. What two types of communication aid in the diffusion process a. word of mouth and manufacturer rebates b. direct mail and public relations c. routine purchase decisions and billboard advertisement d. plays the role of communicator of customer demand e. word of mouth and direct from the marketer 39. Which of the following is NOT an example of a retailer? a. children’s clothing store b. convenience store c. a church d. discount warehouse e. a hamburger restaurant 40. A retail store can be classified according to its: a. societal efforts b. inventory limitations c. product assortment d. management style e. decor and atmosphere 41. Ansonia owns and operates her own janitorial service, but the establishment is licensed by Maid2Clean. Ansonia’s cleaning service is a: a. franchise b. chain store d. independent retailer e. licensor 42. Applying what you have learned about retailing, which type of retail store would typically have the highest labor costs? a. warehouse club b. department store c. dollar store d. off-price retailer e. discount store 43. A manufacturer wants to introduce a line of 100% organic cotton children's clothing to the growing number of professional women who are now having babies. The least expensive of these outfits will be $75. Which of the following types of stores would most likely support an effective product launch? a. off-price retailer b. specialty store c. full-discount store d. general store e. warehouse club 44. _____ are retailers that compete on the basis of low prices, high turnover, and high volume. a. convenience outlets b. discount stores c. general stores d. department stores e. specialty stores 45. _____ is the retailing strategy of using moderate to low prices on large quantities of products and lower service to stimulate a high turnover of inventory. a. specialty store positioning b. merchandise positioning c. online-store retailing d. the wheel of retailing e. mass merchandising 46. Well-known manufacturers such as Nike, Liz Claiborne, and Puma have decided the most profitable way to dispose of out-of-season and irregular stock is to open stores and sell their own merchandise. These stores are types of: a. restaurants b. mass merchandisers d. high end specialty stores e. mass manufacture bargain basements 47. _____ refers to the techniques used to get consumers to buy from their home. Those techniques include direct mail, catalogs and mail order, telemarketing, and electronic retailing. a. nonstore retailing b. in-store retailing c. franchising d. direct retail marketing e. home shopping networks
a. Princeton b. Yale c. Harvard d. University of San Francisco e. None of the above 49. Which of the following is more important when determining the “placement” part of a retail strategy? a. location b. competition c. products selling d. prime hours for each location e. growth potential 50. The Goodman’s ended up buying the vacuum cleaner from the door-to-door salesman for what reason. a. superior cleaning and product attachments b. aluminum foil hook attachment c. bait and switch d. company reputation and strong brand presence e. price
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