Western alamance high school njrotc academic team study guide 2013 edition drill Manual 6



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Field Manual

Chapter 1 NJROTC Uniform Regulations


  1. _____The military uniform is a symbol of the nation's defense forces. Thus the word "uniform" suggests a

    1. uniform composition.

    2. symbol of honor.

    3. distinctive mode of dress.

    4. devotion to duty.




  1. _____The uniform your senior naval science instructor (SNSI) directs you to wear on any given day is known as the

    1. Uniform of the School.

    2. Uniform of the Navy.

    3. Uniform of the Day.

    4. Designated Uniform.




  1. _____Who is the only person who can approve modifications to cadets' uniforms?

    1. school principal

    2. Naval Science Instructor

    3. NJROTC Area Manager

    4. NJROTC Program Office


  1. _____What articles/items may be worn exposed when in uniform?

    1. cell phones

    2. pens

    3. watch chains

    4. no articles may be exposed

5_____When is the wearing INDOORS of a cover required?



    1. during religious service

    2. during parading of colors

    3. while on official duty

    4. promotion ceremonies




  1. _____What head gear is optional for officers and chiefs as part of their NJROTC uniform?

    1. Combination cap

    2. Khaki garrison cap

    3. Black garrison cap

    4. None of the above




  1. _____In uniform, necklaces are authorized but shall not be

    1. any color other than gold or silver.

    2. expensive.

    3. visible.

    4. heavy braid.




  1. _____In uniform, rings are authorized, but no more than _____ may be worn on each hand.

    1. one

    2. two

    3. three

    4. four




  1. _____What type of facial hair is permitted to be worn by male cadets?

    1. goatee

    2. full beard

    3. trimmed mustache

    4. Muttonchop sideburns




  1. _____Male sideburns will be neatly trimmed and tailored and shall not exceed below a point level with the

    1. lower part of the jaw.

    2. bottom of the ear lobe.

    3. top of the ear.

    4. middle of the ear.




  1. _____Which of the following statements is true in the wearing of female earrings/studs?

    1. One per ear, centered on the ear lobe, must be a small gold or silver ball (post or screw on).

    2. Two per ear, centered on top of the ear, must be large gold or silver ball (post or screw on).

    3. Three per ear, centered on the ear lobe, can be of any color or style.

    4. Earrings/studs are not authorized to be worn with the NJROTC uniform.




  1. _____Female hair ornaments such as conspicuous bands, combs, and pins are not authorized. Barrettes are authorized, but must be

    1. black.

    2. brown.

    3. red.

    4. similar to the female hair color.




  1. _____Which of the following statements is true concerning the female hair?

    1. The hair may not touch the collar.

    2. The hair may not touch the female shirt at all.

    3. The hair may touch, but cannot fall below the horizontal line level with the lower edge of the back of the collar.

    4. None of the above.



  1. _____The male hair above the ears and around the neck area must be tapered upward and outward not greater than

    1. 1/4 of an inch.

    2. 3/4 of an inch.

    3. 1 inch.

    4. 2 inches.




  1. _____How far above and centered on the pocket buttonhole are ribbons and the name tag worn parallel to the top of the male and female short sleeve summer blue shirt?

    1. 1/4 inch

    2. 1 and 1/2 of an inch

    3. 1 and 7/8 of an inch

    4. 2 and 1/2 of an inch




  1. _____Sunglasses may be worn with the approval of the Naval Science Instructor and with the following restrictions:

    1. sunglasses must be conservative

    2. never worn while in formation

    3. never worn with retainer straps

    4. all the above



  1. _____The color of the chinstrap on the combination cap for chiefs and enlisted personnel performing in the color guard is

    1. red.

    2. black.

    3. gold.

    4. white.




  1. _____Rank/rate and the JROTC bar insignias are centered at what distance from the collar point on the male and female short sleeve blue shirt?

    1. 1/4 inch

    2. 1 and 1/2 of an inch

    3. 1 and 7/8 of an inch

    4. 2 and 1/2 of an inch




  1. _____What color and type tee-shirt will be worn with all male NJROTC uniforms?

    1. Plain black crew neck or V-neck

    2. Plain white crew neck or V-neck

    3. Any white tee-shirt with a design on it

    4. Any white turtle neck shirt




  1. _____The male nectie, black in color is authorized fabric measuring no more than___________ wide.

    1. 2 1/2 inches

    2. 4 1/4 inches

    3. 3 1/2 inches

    4. 3 1/4 inches



  1. _____Ribbons and aiguillettes are not authorized on which of the following male and female NJROTC uniforms?

    1. Short Sleeve Summer Blue

    2. Service Dress Blue

    3. Winter Blue

    4. Winter Working Blue




  1. _____What award is awarded to any cadet upon completion of the Leadership Academy or similar training, as approved by the area manager?

    1. Sea Cruise Award

    2. Physical Fitness Award

    3. Mini-Boot Camp Award

    4. None of the above




  1. _____What ribbon award is one of the more demanding of the NJROTC awards given to the cadet who qualifies in required overland navigation by compass and map?

    1. Physical Fitness Award

    2. Orienteering Ribbon Award

    3. Participation Award

    4. Sea Cruise Award

  2. _____What award is given yearly to one cadet in each year group with the highest combined average for overall scholastic standing and aptitude in the NJROTC unit activities (academics, homework, physical fitness etc?)

    1. CNET Cadet Award

    2. Honor Cadet Award

    3. Gilliam Award

    4. Distinguished Cadet Award




  1. _____How is the most senior ribbon worn on the uniform shirt when more than one ribbon is worn?

    1. On the bottom row and outboard

    2. On the top row and outboard

    3. On the bottom row and inboard

    4. On the top row and inboard




  1. _____What is the "Rule of Thumb" when wearing a ribbon with a dark color on one end and a light color on the other end?

    1. Dark color inboard

    2. Dark color outboard

    3. No rule exist

    4. None of the above




  1. _____Which one of the following awards is awarded to one cadet in each year group with the highest overall academic achievement (GPA) in school, including all naval science courses?

    1. Distinguished Cadet

    2. Honor Cadet

    3. Exemplary Cadet

    4. All of the above




  1. _____What award is given to that cadet who demonstrates an exceptional military aptitude and dedication to the NJROTC program?

    1. Honor Cadet Award

    2. Distinguished Cadet Award

    3. Military Aptitude Award

    4. Meritorious Cadet Achievement Award




  1. _____What device is put on a ribbon for the fourth award?

    1. 2 bronze stars

    2. 1 Silver star

    3. 2 Silver stars

    4. 1 Gold star




  1. _____What award is given to the cadet that demonstrates an exceptional dedication to the NJROTC program?

    1. Meritorious Cadet Achievement Award

    2. Honor Cadet Award

    3. Distinguished Cadet Award

    4. Military Aptitude Award

Chapter 2 NJROTC Ranks/Rates and U.S. Navy Ranks/Rates





  1. _____A cadet seaman recruit can expect, when qualified, to be advanced to

    1. Cadet Seaman

    2. Cadet Seaman Apprentice

    3. Cadet Petty Officer

    4. Cadet Blue Jacket




  1. _____Advancement to officer status requires an individual who has demonstrate superior quality leadership, integrity, personal appearance, conduct and patriotism.

    1. True

    2. False




  1. _____Petty Officer Third Class is designated by a collar device of

    1. an eagle perched over one rocker.

    2. an eagle perched over one chevron.

    3. an eagle perched over three chevrons.

    4. an eagle perched over three rockers.

  2. _____What is the highest rank that an NJROTC cadet can attain?

    1. Cadet General

    2. Cadet Commander

    3. Cadet Captain

    4. Cadet Ensign




  1. _____For which NJROTC rating is there no collar device?

    1. Petty Officer Second Class

    2. Chief Petty Officer

    3. Seaman Apprentice

    4. Seaman Recruit




  1. _____A cadet Lieutenant Commander is designated by a collar device of

    1. two attached gold bars.

    2. three attached gold bars.

    3. five attached gold bars.

    4. four attached gold bars.




  1. _____A reduction in rank/grade is based on unacceptable performance and is called a

    1. demerit

    2. demolition

    3. demotion

    4. deduction




  1. _____A cadet Ensign is designated by a collar device of

    1. three gold bars.

    2. two gold bars.

    3. one gold bar.

    4. one silver bar.




  1. _____Petty Officer First Class is designated by a collar device of

    1. an eagle perched over one rocker.

    2. an eagle perched over one chevron.

    3. an eagle perched over three chevrons.

    4. an eagle perched over three rockers.




  1. _____Students who are entering the NJROTC program for the first time are most often assigned the grade of

    1. cadet seaman apprentice.

    2. cadet seaman recruit.

    3. cadet seaman.

    4. cadet third class.



  1. _____All rate and rank promotions are determined by the naval science instructor.

    1. True

    2. False




  1. _____A cadet Lieutenant (Junior Grade) is designated by a collar device of

    1. three attached gold bars.

    2. two attached gold bars.

    3. five attached gold bars.

    4. four attached gold bars.




  1. _____A cadet Commander is designated by a collar device of

    1. one single gold bar.

    2. three attached gold bars.

    3. five attached gold bars.

    4. five attached gold bars with stars.




  1. _____Cadet officers that have shown an aptitude for high leadership in the NJROTC program are generally in their

    1. first or second year.

    2. second or third year.

    3. first or fourth year.

    4. third or fourth year.




  1. _____Cadet Senior Chief Petty Officer (C/SCPO) is designated by a collar device of

    1. an eagle perched over three chevrons.

    2. an eagle and one star perched on a fouled anchor.

    3. an eagle perched over two chevrons.

    4. an eagle perched over one chevron.




  1. _____A chevron on a collar device looks like

    1. a rocker on a rocking chair.

    2. a flat drawing of an Indian tepee.

    3. half of a link of chain.

    4. the letter V.




  1. _____A paygrade of O-2 carries the title

    1. Lieutenant

    2. Ensign

    3. Lieutenant Junior Grade

    4. First Lieutenant




  1. _____The lowest three enlisted pay grades are in the general apprenticeship area before advancement to petty officer pay grades.

    1. True

    2. False




  1. ______The Navy's rate and rank structure for men and women on active duty is in some ways similar to the rate and rank structure used by the cadets in the NJROTC program.

    1. True

    2. False




  1. _____When enlisted personnel move up to the next higher rate in their specialty, they do not receive an advancement in pay.

    1. True

    2. False




  1. _____What are the colors of the collar insignia of a Chief Warrant Officer Three (CWO3)?

    1. blue and gray

    2. blue and gold

    3. blue and silver

    4. blue and black




  1. _____What are the maximum number of stars that can be on an insignia of the Navy Chief Petty Officer rate?

    1. 4

    2. 3

    3. 2

    4. 1




  1. _____How many gold stripes are on the Blue Service coat sleeve of a Captain in the Navy?

    1. 4

    2. 3

    3. 1 wide

    4. 2




  1. _____What is the collar insignia of a Navy Commander?

    1. two silver bars

    2. oak leaf

    3. silver eagle

    4. acorn




  1. _____How many paygrade of admiral exist?

    1. 1

    2. 2

    3. 3

    4. 4




  1. _____When officers move up to the next rank and paygrade, they have earned a(n)

    1. advancement

    2. restitution

    3. promotion

    4. brevet




  1. _____What is the term that signifies that an enlisted person has moved up to the next higher rate?

    1. Promoted

    2. Demoted

    3. Selected

    4. Advanced

Chapter 3 Military Customs, Courtesies and Ceremonies


  1. _____What is called the traditional way by which salutes to ships, to high ranking individuals, to nations are carried out?

    1. Pomp and ceremony

    2. Colors

    3. Courtesies

    4. Ceremonial customs




  1. _____Regarding national flag, which statement is NOT correct?

    1. Our flag is our companion around the world

    2. Never display the flag in or near a polling place

    3. The flag should be displayed on all days

    4. The flag is a living thing. There is magic in its folds.




  1. _____What is the preferred method of destroying a flag unfit for public display?

    1. shredding

    2. burying

    3. burning

    4. jettison at sea




  1. _____The flag and the national anthem are symbols of

    1. military personnel.

    2. all the people, their land, and their institutions.

    3. national conquest.

    4. foreign wars.




  1. _____The U.S. flag can be displayed twenty-four hours a day under which of the following situations?

    1. Never

    2. During a funeral for the President

    3. Only with the President's approval

    4. When properly illuminated during the hours of darkness




  1. _____The United States flag signifies a people dedicated to

    1. liberty.

    2. justice.

    3. freedom for all.

    4. All of the above.




  1. _____When the flag is in such condition that it is no longer a fitting emblem for display, the flag is destroyed in a dignified way, preferably how?

    1. Burying

    2. Shredding

    3. Burning

    4. None of the above

  2. _____It is the universal custom to display the United States flag from what start time to what ending time?

    1. Sunrise to sunset

    2. 0600 to 1200

    3. 1100 to 1500

    4. 24 hours a day




  1. _____On what national holiday is the flag flown at half-mast until noon?

    1. Thanksgiving

    2. Navy Day

    3. Armed Forces Day

    4. Memorial Day




  1. _____How long is the salute held during the playing of the national anthem?

    1. until the flag reaches the top of the flagstaff

    2. until the last note of the anthem

    3. until whenever the color guard renders a salute

    4. until the senior officer tells you to drop the salute


  1. _____What does the term "half staff" mean?

    1. Position of the flag is lowered to the bottom of the staff

    2. Position of the flag is one-third the distance between the top and bottom of the staff

    3. Position of the flag is one-fourth the distance between the top and the bottom of the staff

    4. None of the above




  1. _____When attending an outdoor event in uniform and the U.S. flag is escorted past you, how many paces is it before you render a hand salute?

    1. When the flag is even with you

    2. When the flag is 4 paces from you

    3. When the flag is 6 paces from you

    4. When the flag is 8 paces from you




  1. _____When you are in uniform and outdoors and you hear the national anthem played and the flag is not visible, what do you do?

    1. Stand at attention, face the music and render a salute

    2. Stand at attention, face due North and render a salute

    3. Nothing, continue doing what you are presently doing

    4. Stand at parade rest until the music stops, then carry on




  1. _____On a military base, at the first note of the national anthem, what should all vehicles/passengers do?

    1. Continue travel to prevent traffic jams

    2. Come to a complete stop, then sit quietly until last note

    3. Park vehicle, exit vehicle, stand at attention

    4. Turn on headlights, continue travel




  1. _____What should you do if, while outdoors in civilian clothes, you hear the national anthem but the flag is not visible?

    1. Carry on, as you are not in uniform

    2. Stand at attention and face in the direction of the music

    3. Stand at attention and face in the direction of the parade field

    4. Salute smartly the nearest officer




  1. _____What is the position of a flag when it is flown at "Half-Staff"?

    1. three-quarters the distance to the top of the flagstaff

    2. one-half the distance between the top and the bottom of the staff

    3. one-third the distance to the top of the flagstaff

    4. half the distance of the width of the flag from the truck




  1. _____Why is the flag flown at half-mast?

    1. to honor and pay respect to deceased persons of national importance

    2. to recognize all national holidays

    3. to signify the close of a duty day

    4. to honor and respect foreign allies




  1. _____When do military formations recite the Pledge of Allegiance?

    1. during sporting events

    2. at protocol functions

    3. whenerver stationed overseas

    4. never




  1. _____How many words are there in the pledge of allegiance?

    1. 12

    2. 21

    3. 31

    4. 41




  1. _____Which of the following words of the pledge of allegiance says that our country is incapable of being divided during troublesome times?

    1. For which it stands

    2. One nation

    3. With liberty

    4. Indivisible

  2. _____Which of the following words of the pledge of allegiance describes a body of people associated with a particular territory, who are conscious of their unity?

    1. For which it stands

    2. One nation

    3. Under God

    4. With liberty




  1. _____The senior officer taking part in a ceremony is referred to as a?

    1. Adjutant

    2. Officer Commanding

    3. Commander of Troops

    4. Marshal of Ceremony




  1. _____Which of the following is NOT a type of ceremony?

    1. inspection

    2. parade

    3. review

    4. decoration




  1. _____Which of the following is NOT a type of ceremony concerning the U.S. flag?

    1. Street parades

    2. Funerals

    3. Reviews

    4. None of the above




  1. _____What is the signal for the start of the official duty day?

    1. 12 o'clock reports

    2. Sweepers

    3. Taps

    4. Reveille




  1. _____A signal for the end of a duty day; also serves as a ceremony for paying respect to the flag.

    1. Tattoo

    2. 8 o'clock reports

    3. Retreat

    4. Sunset




  1. _____If Marine and Navy units are participating jointly in an NROTC unit's review, the Marine units are placed where, in respect to the Navy units?

    1. ahead of

    2. behind

    3. to the left

    4. aligned to the right front

  2. _____The second in command during a review is whom?

    1. Adjutant

    2. Assistant Officer in Charge

    3. Deputy

    4. Executive Director




  1. ______Which of the following is NOT a part of a formal review?

    1. Formation of the unit

    2. Presentation and honors

    3. March in review

    4. Keynote address




  1. _____When performing a Pass in Review, the platoon commander executes eyes right when the platoon is within how many paces from the nearest member of the reviewing party?

    1. 2

    2. 4

    3. 6

    4. 8




  1. _____If three services (Navy, Marine, Army,) are participating jointly in an NROTC unit's review, the order of march is

    1. Navy, Marine Corps, and Army.

    2. Army, Navy, and Marine Corps.

    3. Army, Marine Corps, and Navy.

    4. Marine Corps, Navy, and Army.




  1. ______After the reviewing officer has taken his/her position in the reviewing area and the cadets are at attention, the commander of the troops commands

    1. EYES, RIGHT.

    2. REST.

    3. PASS In REVIEW.

    4. EYES, LEFT.




  1. _____The line on which the cadets are to form and along which they are to march in the review area is marked out by the

    1. reviewing officer.

    2. commander of the unit.

    3. exemplary cadet of the unit.

    4. host organization for the review.




  1. _____A military review consists of how many parts?

    1. 4

    2. 6

    3. 8

    4. 10




  1. ______The proper service order of march in a review is:

    1. Army, Navy, Marine Corps

    2. Navy, Army, Marine Corps

    3. Army, Marine Corps, Navy

    4. Any of the above are acceptable




  1. ______The formal part of a review during which an inspection is made is called

    1. Trooping the line

    2. Boots and Saddles

    3. Parading the troops

    4. Close-order drill




  1. _____What is the name of the person who organizes and directs a street parade?

    1. Master of Ceremonies

    2. Chief functionary

    3. Grand Marshal

    4. Mayor's Adjutant




  1. _____Why should cadets look upon participation in a parade, especially in the civilian community, as an important part of their training?

    1. Awards that they might receive

    2. Brings credit to the community

    3. Brings credit to their school and unit

    4. tests their knowledge of etiquette



  1. ______Street parades are organized and directed by a person designated as

    1. Staff officer.

    2. Platoon commander.

    3. Grand marshal.

    4. None of the above

Chapter 4 Personnel Inspection





  1. _____Naval science instructors and school officials can learn the condition of many aspects of training, morale, and leadership that exists in their unit by the cadets'

    1. self-discipline.

    2. appearance.

    3. outstanding academic performance.

    4. pride.




  1. _____Personnel inspections often require a lot of

    1. spit and polish.

    2. self-discipline.

    3. planning and preparation.

    4. starch.




  1. _____One of the positive things that personnel inspection promotes for the cadet is

    1. pride in their units.

    2. attention to detail.

    3. self-discipline.

    4. All of the above.




  1. _____The best part of the personnel inspection is that the naval science instructors get a chance to see what the cadets

    1. need to accomplish in the future.

    2. can accomplish.

    3. have learned.

    4. None of the above.




  1. _____When the NJROTC company is forming for inspection, the company falls in by

    1. platoons.

    2. squads.

    3. ranks.

    4. files.




  1. ______What is the command given by the company commander at the appointed time for inspection?

    1. OPEN RANKS, MARCH

    2. READY, FRONT, MARCH

    3. ATTENTION

    4. PREPARE FOR INSPECTION




  1. _____What is the first action the platoon commander of the first (base) platoon gives to his/her cadets?

    1. READY FRONT, COVER

    2. AT EASE

    3. OPEN RANKS, MARCH

    4. ATTENTION




  1. _____What command does the platoon commander give after verifying that the alignment is correct in the platoon?

    1. OPEN RANKS, MARCH

    2. AT EASE

    3. READY FRONT, COVER

    4. ATTENTION



  1. ______What command does the company commander give after he/she reports the company is ready for inspection?

    1. READY FRONT, COVER

    2. AT EASE

    3. OPEN RANKS, MARCH

    4. ATTENTION




  1. ______What command is given by the platoon commander when the inspecting officer approaches the platoon?

    1. PARADE REST

    2. OPEN RANKS, MARCH

    3. SILENCE

    4. ATTENTION




  1. _____Upon completion of the inspection, each platoon commander faces left and orders

    1. AT EASE

    2. CLOSE RANKS, MARCH

    3. ATTENTION

    4. PARADE REST




  1. ______Upon completion of the inspection of each platoon, on which command does the platoon commander move by the most direct route and takes his/her post six paces in front of the center of his/her platoon?

    1. ATTENTION

    2. PARADE REST

    3. AT EASE

    4. MARCH




  1. _____Socks an inspectable item at personnel inspections?

    1. True

    2. False




  1. _____What item is NOT inspected at a personnel inspection?

    1. neck properly shaved

    2. good posture

    3. clothes that are fit properly

    4. sword




  1. _____Fingernails may be inspected at a personnel inspection.

    1. True

    2. False

Chapter 5 Health Education





  1. _____Rules of conduct that people should follow in society are called

    1. ethos

    2. pathos

    3. ethics

    4. eugenics



  1. _____What is the name of the stress management program discussed in the cadet field manual?

    1. PROMOTE

    2. RELIEF

    3. RELAX

    4. EXHALE




  1. ____The human growth and development characteristic that refers to the traits a person gets from his or her parents, such as skin coloring and height is called

    1. hygiene.

    2. environment.

    3. heredity.

    4. puberty.




  1. _____Puberty usually occurs between what ages in boys?

    1. 13 to 16 years old

    2. 12 to 13 years old

    3. 11 to 15 years old

    4. 9 to 15 years old




  1. _____Which concept below refers to a person who develops a set of beliefs, ideals, interests, likes and dislikes that govern behavior?

    1. Heredity

    2. Ethics

    3. Morality

    4. Value system




  1. _____Puberty usually occurs between what ages in girls?

    1. Fourteen to fifteen years old

    2. Nine to Thirteen years old

    3. Thirteen to sixteen years old

    4. None of the above




  1. _____Which characteristic below refers to the influence of their surroundings on a person, such as stress level and availability of nourishing food?

    1. Heredity

    2. Hygiene

    3. Sexual development

    4. Environment




  1. _____What is the third greatest cause of death among people aged fifteen to twenty-four?

    1. Drinking and driving

    2. Drowning

    3. Freak accidents

    4. Suicide




  1. _____To which of the following symptoms (illnesses) below does stress contribute?

    1. Heart disease

    2. Hypertension

    3. Withdrawal

    4. All of the above



  1. _____Which human growth and development characteristic below is defined as the body's response to demands, real or imagined, in a particular situation?

    1. Chemical imbalance

    2. Depression

    3. Stress

    4. Impulsive behavior



  1. _____Mumps, polio, chicken pox, and scarlet fever are what type of diseases?

    1. debilitating

    2. infectious

    3. deficiency

    4. natal




  1. _____Proper foot care includes

    1. cleaning and drying, especially between the toes

    2. using absorbent foot powder

    3. wearing comfortable shoes

    4. all the above



  1. _____How often should hair be shampooed?

    1. at least once a week

    2. as needed

    3. twice a day

    4. only after strenuous exercise




  1. _____The science of health is called

    1. hygenics

    2. fitness

    3. aerobics

    4. hygiene




  1. _____A realistic weekly weight loss rate is

    1. 5 pounds per week

    2. one-half to 2 pounds per week

    3. 7 pounds a week

    4. 1 pound a month




  1. _____What are the Five Food Groups?

    1. poultry, meat, fish, vegetable, fruit

    2. red meat, citrus, vegetable, oils, fruit

    3. milk, meat, vegetable, fruit, grain

    4. grain, poultry, rice, juice, vegetable




  1. _____What is the only sure method to prevent sexually transmitted diseases (STD's)?

    1. Taking preventive shots

    2. Condoms

    3. Abstinence

    4. Education




  1. _____For growth purposes, plaque utilizes nutrients from food, especially

    1. sugar.

    2. salt.

    3. coffee.

    4. yeasts.




  1. _____Which method below is an effective and efficient way of removing plaque from the surface of the tooth?

    1. Brushing teeth regularly

    2. Mouthwash

    3. Flossing

    4. Oral irrigators



  1. _____Which one of the following is described as being a thin transparent film containing bacteria that forms on the tooth surface and hardens into tartar?

    1. Palate

    2. Plaque

    3. Decay

    4. Putrefaction




  1. _____Which of the following is an important part of the health and hygiene equation and is essential to supplying the body with all the elements needed to function?

    1. Proper exercise

    2. Proper hygiene

    3. Nutrition

    4. Dieting



  1. _____Which of the following health and hygiene characteristics increases the body's resistance to diseases, promotes digestive and excretory functions, and decreases your risk of heart disease?

    1. Personal hygiene

    2. Proper foot care

    3. Oral hygiene

    4. Proper exercise




  1. _____A condition of complete physical and mental well-being and freedom from disease is known as

    1. health.

    2. hygiene.

    3. understanding.

    4. physical fitness.




  1. _____Peanut butter is an example of what food group?

    1. Vegetable

    2. Meat

    3. Oils

    4. Grain




  1. ______What is the name of the small organ at the top of abdomen which produces insulin?

    1. gall bladder

    2. kidney

    3. pancreas

    4. liver




  1. _____Which of the following drugs come from a plant whose leaves contain an addictive stimulant called nicotine?

    1. Peyote

    2. Hashish

    3. Marijuana

    4. Tobacco




  1. _____What do we call drugs that underground chemists sometimes try to modify the molecular structures so that they can be several hundred times stronger than the drugs they imitate?

    1. Amphetamines

    2. Barbiturates

    3. Designer drugs

    4. stimulants




  1. _____In what area of the body does alcohol decrease its ability to metabolize fat?

    1. The stomach

    2. The pancreas

    3. The brain

    4. The liver




  1. _____How many teenagers in today's society have a drinking problem?

    1. Less than 4.3 million

    2. Some 4.6 million

    3. Some 6.5 million

    4. More than 7.2 million




  1. _____Which of the following statements is true?

    1. Skiing accidents are the leading cause of death among young people aged 15 to 24

    2. Drowning accidents are the leading cause of death among young people aged 15 to 24

    3. Hunting accidents are the leading cause of death among young people aged 15 to 24

    4. Alcohol-related accidents are the leading cause of death among young people aged 15 to 24



  1. _____What do we call the tube in which food passes from the mouth to the stomach and where alcoholics have a greater chance of developing cancer?

    1. The pancreas

    2. The esophagus

    3. The stomach

    4. The liver




  1. ______The best reason young people should avoid drug abuse is the

    1. financial cost involved.

    2. negative effect on the long-term well-being of the individual.

    3. can degrade personal appearance.

    4. there is no joy in it.




  1. _____Substance abuse

    1. has no long term impact.

    2. does not pose a problem in this country.

    3. is illegal.

    4. affects only the abuser.




  1. _____Long term drug abuse

    1. degrades personal appearance.

    2. causes unwanted weight loss.

    3. causes a sickly complexion.

    4. causes all of the above.

Chapter 6 Physical Fitness and Exercise





  1. _____Recent studies have found that 75 percent of all Americans believe that some kind of regular activity is importnt.

    1. True

    2. False




  1. _____Recent studies found _____ percent of Americans believe some kind of regular activity is important.

a) 60

b) 70


c) 75

d) 90




  1. _____Only about _____ percent of adult Americans do any kind of regular exercise.

a) 25

b) 35


c) 55

d) 45



  1. _____Physical fitness is the ability of your whole body, including the muscles, skeleton, heart and all the other parts, to work together efficiently.

    1. True

    2. False




  1. _____Which of the following areas is NOT one of the four areas of total fitness?

    1. Mental fitness

    2. Physical fitness

    3. Emotional fitness

    4. Cardiovascular fitness



  1. _____Emotional fitness means being stable and self-controlled, facing reality in an honest manner and having ethical standards.

    1. True

    2. False



  1. _____Everyone should try to achieve _____________ fitness.

a) total

b) limited

c) unlimited

d) maturity




  1. _____Emotional fitness means being stable and self-controlled, facing reality in an honest manner and having ________ standards.

a) academic

b) ethical

c) social

d) feel good




  1. _____Which of the following areas is NOT one of the four areas of total fitness?

a) Mental fitness

b) Physical fitness

c) Emotional fitness

d) Cardiovascular fitness




  1. _____Out of the eleven parts of physical fitness, how many are considered skill-related parts?

    1. 2

    2. 3

    3. 5

    4. 6



  1. _____Cardiovascular fitness, strength, muscular endurance are all parts of the

    1. principal of overload.

    2. skill-related parts of fitness.

    3. health-related parts of fitness.

    4. principles of the sound exercise program.




  1. _____Under the skill-related parts to physical fitness, which part is the ability to do strength performance quickly?

    1. Speed

    2. Power

    3. Coordination

    4. Reaction time




  1. _____Before you start a vigorous exercise, you should

    1. warm-up.

    2. cool-down.

    3. check your heart rate.

    4. just go straight into exercising.




  1. _____The advantage to exercising is

    1. enjoying life

    2. looking good.

    3. being healthy.

    4. All of the above are correct.




  1. _____What physical fitness part consists of the amount of force one can put forth with your muscles?

    1. Body weight

    2. Cardiovascular fitness

    3. Strength

    4. Flexibility




  1. _____Out of the eleven parts of physical fitness, how many are considered skill-related parts?

    1. A.2

    2. B.3

    3. C.5

    4. D.6

  2. ______ ___________ is the ability to keep upright while you are standing still or moving.

a) Coordination

b) Balance

c) Speed

d) Reaction Time




  1. ______ _________ is the ability to perform a movement or cover a distance is a short period of time.

a) Speed

b) Power


c) Balance

d) Coordination




  1. _____What physical fitness part consists of the amount of force one can put forth with your muscles?

a) Body weight

b) Cardiovascular fitness

c) Strength

d) Flexibility




  1. _____What physical fitness part consists of the ability to exercise the entire body for long periods of time?

a) Muscular endurance

b) Strength fitness

c) Power strength

d) Cardiovascular fitness





  1. _____Under skill-related parts to physical fitness, which part is the ability to do strength performance quickly?

a) Speed

b) Power

c) Coordination

d) Reaction time




  1. _____Cardiovascular fitness, strength, muscular endurance are all parts of the

a) principal of overload.

b) skill-related parts of fitness.

c) health-related parts of fitness.

d) principles of the sound exercise program.




  1. _____Physical fitness is the ability of your whole body, including the muscles, skeleton, _______ and all the other parts, to work together efficiently.

a) skin

b) feet


c) heart

d) health




  1. _____Agility is the ability to change the position of your body quickly and to control the movement of your entire body.

    1. True

    2. False




  1. _____Balance is the ability to keep upright while you are standing still or moving.

    1. True

    2. False




  1. _____Coordination is the ability to do strength performance quickly.

    1. True

    2. False




  1. _____What physical fitness part consists of the ability to exercise the entire body for long periods of time?

    1. Muscular endurance

    2. Strength fitness

    3. Power strength

    4. Cardiovascular fitness

  2. _____What is the minimum number of times a week that you should exercise?

    1. Once a week

    2. Twice a week

    3. Three times a week

    4. Five times a week




  1. _____For exercise to be beneficial, you need to increase the amount you do over a period of time. This is called

a) Principle of Overload

b) Principle of Progression

c) Principle of Specificity

d) Principle of Good Judgment




  1. _____For exercise to be beneficial, you need to exercise _______ times per week.

a) Once a week

b) twice a week

c) Three times a week

d) Five times a week




  1. _____Which part listed below does not make up the fitness target zone?

a) Intensity

b) Resistance

c) Frequency

d) Duration




  1. _____Which of the following principles of a sound exercise program allows you to gradually increase the amount of exercise you do to improve fitness?

    1. The Principle of Overload

    2. The Principle of Progression

    3. The Principle of Specificity

    4. The Principle of Good Judgment




  1. _____Which one of parts listed below do not make up the fitness target zone?

    1. Intensity

    2. Resistance

    3. Frequency

    4. Duration




  1. _____The duration for an effective workout should be how long?

    1. Five to ten minutes long

    2. Fifteen to thirty minutes long

    3. Twenty to forty minutes long

    4. Fifty minutes long




  1. _____Most experts agree that ________ minutes is the minimum amount of time you should raise your heart rate to build cardiovascular fitness.

a) 10

b) 15

c) 20

d) 30



  1. _____Exercise must last at least _____ to _____ minutes to benefit your fitness.

a) 5 to 10

b) 10 to 20

c) 15 to 30

d) 30 to 60



  1. _____When doing moderate physical activity with moderate temperatures and humidity prevailing, you should consume adequate amounts of water at

    1. 30 or 45 minute intervals.

    2. 40 or 50 minute intervals.

    3. 20 or 30 minute intervals.

    4. 50 or 60 minute intervals.




  1. _____What are the three basic types of heat casualties?

a) Heat Cramps, Heat Exhaustion, Heat Stroke

b) Heat Exhaustion, Heat Emergency, Heat Exercise

c) Heat Cramps, Heat Loss, Heat Stroke

d) Heat Stroke, Heat Emergency, Heat Cramps




  1. _____What type of heat casualty is caused by strenuous exertion and exposure to high temperatures and humidity, and is usually the result of excessive salt depletion and dehydration?

    1. Heat cramps

    2. Heat stroke

    3. Heat exhaustion

    4. Heat replacement

Chapter 7 Physical Fitness Exercises and Qualifying Minimums





  1. _____When can cadets call a Training Time Out (TTO)?

    1. If they are feeling a sharp pain in their side

    2. If they feel like they are going to throw up

    3. If they fear for their personal safety

    4. All of the above




  1. _____Which of the following is the correct sequence of events for the Physical Fitness Test (PFT)?

    1. 1.5-mile-run, sit-reach, curl-ups, and push-ups

    2. sit-reach, curl-ups, push-ups, and the 1.5-mile-run

    3. curl-ups, sit-reach, 1.5-mile-run, and push-ups

    4. push-ups, sit-reach, curl-ups, and the 1.5-mile run




  1. _____The 1.5-mile-run is included in the total physical fitness measurement because of the importance of seeing how effective the heart and lungs work to deliver oxygen to the body.

    1. True b) False




  1. _____Curl-ups are indicators of upper torso muscular endurance.

    1. True b) False






  1. _____Cardio respiratory endurance is the ability to persist in physical activity which demands the use of large amounts of oxygen.

    1. True b) False




  1. _____What statement below is NOT true regarding the PFT rules for Push-Ups?

    1. the time limit is 2 minutes

    2. your feet may not rest against an immovable object

    3. shoes must be worn

    4. body must be kept perfectly straight, from heel to toe




  1. _____A cadet will pass the Physical Fitness Test (PFT) when he/she

    1. achieves satisfactory in 3 of the 4 PFT events.

    2. achieves satisfactory in all 4 of the PFT events.

    3. completes the 1.5-mile-run in less than 9 minutes and 30 seconds.

    4. completes 50 curl-ups and 25 push-ups.




  1. _____The sit-reach test serves as an important functional measure of hip and back flexibility.

    1. True b) False




  1. _____The "upper torso" muscular endurance is indicated by which test?

    1. Push-ups

    2. Sit-reach

    3. Curl-ups

    4. Chin-ups




  1. _____Cadets must hold the touching of their toes on the sit-reach test for

    1. 1 second.

    2. 2 seconds.

    3. 3 seconds.

    4. as long as the instructor indicates.




  1. _____The curl-up test (abdominal muscle group endurance) has been identified as an important factor in preventing

    1. lower neck injury.

    2. upper torso injury.

    3. lower stomach injury.

    4. lower back injury.




  1. _____During the 1.5-mile-run

    1. no classmate (pacer) can run along with the person being tested.

    2. the person being tested may only walk one fourth of the total distance.

    3. a standard quarter-mile running track can be used vice a straight distance course.

    4. ten seconds can be subtracted from the total final time for each knot of headwind.



  1. _____What is the only reason permitted for a make-up PFT?

    1. late homework assignment

    2. valid medical reason

    3. fear of embarrassment

    4. too competitive




  1. _____The Physical Fitness Test can be conducted

    1. as often as the Senior Naval Science Instructor (SNSI) wishes.

    2. twice each semester for those schools on a conventional 36-weeks schedule.

    3. once in the fall and once in the spring, for most units.

    4. once a year




  1. _____What ribbon device is awarded to the cadet who scores an overall point score of "outstanding" on the PFT and achieves the minimum requirements to be "satisfactory" in each event?

    1. Bronze Lamp

    2. Gold Lamp

    3. Silver Lamp

    4. None of the above




  1. _____The lamp worn on the ribbon reflects the level of achievement from the most recent semi-annual PFT offered by the unit.

    1. True b) False




  1. _____What is the minimum physical fitness standard a cadet must achieve in all categories of the entire Physical Fitness Test, regardless of the total number of points earned, to have earned the PFT ribbon?

    1. Good

    2. Excellent

    3. Basic

    4. Satisfactory




  1. _____If a cadet earns the silver lamp on the PFT with an overall point score of "excellent," but then scores only a "satisfactory" point score on all portions of the PFT the second time he/she takes the test, what happens to the silver lamp?

    1. the silver lamp is replaced with a bronze lamp.

    2. the silver lamp is replaced with a bronze star.

    3. nothing, the silver lamp remains on the ribbon once earned.

    4. the silver lamp is removed and the cadet wears just the PFT ribbon.




  1. _____What ribbon device is awarded to the cadet who has an overall point score of "good" on the PFT and achieves the minimum requirements to be satisfactory in each event?

    1. Gold lamp

    2. Silver lamp

    3. Bronze lamp

    4. Blue lamp




  1. _____To earn a Physical Fitness Ribbon a cadet

    1. must pass a least 3 of the 4 events on the test.

    2. must score within 15 points of satisfactory on all portions of the test.

    3. must pass all portions of the test with a score of outstanding.

    4. None of the above are correct.




  1. _____The commander of a physical fitness team does not wear the gold anchor on the Physical Fitness Ribbon.

    1. True b) False




  1. _____What ribbon device is awarded to the cadet who has an overall point score of "excellent" on the PFT and achieves the minimum requirements to be satisfactory in each event?

    1. Bronze lamp

    2. Blue lamp

    3. Silver lamp

    4. Gold lamp

Chapter 8 Introduction to First Aid





  1. _____Which one of the following is NOT a purpose of first aid?

    1. To gain insights on safety prevention

    2. To prevent further injury

    3. To save a life

    4. To minimize or prevent infection




  1. _____What first aid measure should be taken after determining the extent of the patient's injury?

    1. Check for breathing

    2. Check for shock

    3. Check for bleeding

    4. Check for pulse




  1. _____Which of the following is the most common cause of airway obstruction in a casualty who is unconscious?

    1. The throat

    2. The hands

    3. The stomach

    4. The tongue




  1. _____Primary first aid for complete airway obstruction in a conscious victim is the

    1. CPR maneuver

    2. Medic Alert

    3. Heimlich maneuver

    4. Placing of victim on his/her stomach




  1. _____Which of the following is the emergency procedure used for the casualty who is not breathing and whose heart has stopped beating?

    1. Heimlich maneuver

    2. Shock treatment

    3. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)

    4. None of the above




  1. _____Which of the following statements is true concerning the primary objective of first aid?

    1. To maintain an open airway

    2. To maintain breathing if all possible

    3. To maintain circulation

    4. All of the above




  1. _____Which one of the following methods is NOT used to control bleeding?

    1. Direct pressure

    2. Tourniquet

    3. Cast

    4. Elevation




  1. _____What is the type of bleeding in which blood flow is slow and blood oozes from the wound?

    1. Arterial bleeding

    2. Bleeding from the veins

    3. Capillary bleeding

    4. Outward bleeding




  1. _____What is the type of bleeding in which the bleeding is bright red, and the blood spurts from the wound? This type of bleeding is life threatening and difficult to control.

    1. Capillary bleeding

    2. Bleeding from the veins

    3. Inward bleeding

    4. None of the above



  1. _____What is the type of bleeding that is dark red, and flows in a steady stream?

    1. Dark colored bleeding

    2. Capillary bleeding

    3. Bleeding from veins

    4. Arterial bleeding




  1. _____Which one of the following terms describes the use of pressure points in the body to help control arterial bleeding?

    1. Direct pressure

    2. Elevating

    3. Indirect pressure

    4. Controlled pressure




  1. _____Which one of the following is the first and most effective method of controlling bleeding?

    1. Elevating

    2. Direct pressure

    3. Indirect pressure

    4. Ligature




  1. _____Which of the following refers to the failure of the heart and blood vessels to maintain enough oxygen-rich blood flowing to the vital organs of the body?

    1. Internal bleeding

    2. Shock

    3. Fainting

    4. External bleeding




  1. _____What is the basic position for treating shock?

    1. Stand the victim upright

    2. Lay victim on his/her right side

    3. Position victim in a curled position

    4. Position victim's head lower than the feet




  1. _____The two main threats with soft tissue injuries are

    1. venial punctures and collapse of lungs.

    2. bleeding and infection.

    3. amputation and gangrene.

    4. bleeding and shock.




  1. _____The most common injuries in a first aid situation are

    1. injuries to the bones and joints.

    2. soft tissue injuries.

    3. dislocation of internal organs.

    4. cranial obstruction



  1. _____A injury to the underlying tissues without a break in the skin or membrane is called a

    1. small wound.

    2. closed wound.

    3. open wound.

    4. large wound.




  1. _____What bodily injury occurs when a bone is forced out of its joint?

    1. Sprain

    2. Open fracture

    3. Closed fracture

    4. Dislocation




  1. _____What do we call a bodily injury to the ligaments that support a joint?

    1. Dislocation

    2. Open fracture

    3. Closed fracture

    4. Sprain




  1. _____Which of the following statements describes how burns are classified?

    1. According to the size of the burn

    2. The width of the burn area

    3. The depth of injury to the tissue

    4. the source of the burning agent




  1. _____In case of chemical burns, first flush the area immediately with large quantities of

    1. rubbing alcohol.

    2. soapy water.

    3. fresh water.

    4. disinfectant solution.




  1. _____First aid procedures for dangerous chemicals may be found in the

    1. pill book.

    2. Materail Safety Data Sheet.

    3. hazardous chemicals watchbill.

    4. Plan of the Day.




  1. _____Used to give a rough estimate of the surface area burned on the body of a casualty.

    1. Material Data Safety Sheet.

    2. First aid kit instructions.

    3. Rule of Nines.

    4. Degrees of Burn.




  1. _____Which of the following is caused by excessive loss of water and salt?

    1. Heat cramps

    2. Heat stroke

    3. Hypothermia

    4. Heat exhaustion




  1. _____Which of the following burns result from exposure to acids, alkalies, or other strong chemicals?

    1. Thermal burns

    2. Chemical burns

    3. Electrical burns

    4. None of the above




  1. _____Which of the following is caused when the casualty experiences a breakdown of the sweating mechanism and is unable to get rid of excessive body heat?

    1. Heat cramps

    2. Heat stroke

    3. Hypothermia

    4. Heat exhaustion



  1. _____Which of the following is caused by muscle pains and spasms that result from a loss of water?

    1. Heat stroke

    2. Heat exhaustion

    3. Heat cramps

    4. Hypothermia




  1. _____Which of the following burns are caused by direct contact with electricity?

    1. Thermal burns

    2. Chemical burns

    3. Electrical burns

    4. None of the above




  1. _____Which of the following burns are caused by exposure to hot solids, liquids, gases, or fire?

    1. Second-degree burns

    2. Chemical burns

    3. Thermal burns

    4. Electrical




  1. _____Which of the following burns involve all layers of the skin, penetrating into muscle, connective tissue, and bone?

    1. Second-degree burns

    2. Third-degree burns

    3. Fourth-degree burns

    4. First-degree




  1. _____Which of the following burns involve only the first layer of the skin?

    1. Second-degree burns

    2. Third-degree burns

    3. Fourth-degree burns

    4. First-degree




  1. _____Which of the following burns involve the first and part of the second layer of the skin?

    1. Third-degree burns

    2. Second-degree burns

    3. First-degree burns

    4. Fourth-degree burns




  1. _____Which of the following is caused by prolonged exposure to low or rapidly falling temperatures, cold moisture, snow, or ice?

    1. Cold sweats

    2. Heat stroke

    3. Hypothermia

    4. Heat exhaustion




  1. _____Dry heat causes burns; moist heat causes

    1. punctures

    2. scalds

    3. abrasions

    4. broils



  1. _____Never rub or massage areas of the body affected by

    1. tension

    2. soreness

    3. frostbite

    4. muscle tightening




  1. _____Swelling around the fang marks of a poisonous snakebit occurs usually within

    1. one minute

    2. seconds

    3. 5-10 minutes

    4. within 1 hour




  1. _____When using a blanket drag to transport a casualty, place the victim

    1. face down on the blanket.

    2. on his/her side.

    3. face up on the blanket.

    4. in a sitting position on the blanket.




  1. _____The tied-hands crawl is appropriate to transport

    1. an unconscious casualty a short distance

    2. a conscious casualty a short distance

    3. an unconscious casualty a long distance

    4. at any time, if required




  1. _____If a casualty suffers a seizure, what should you do?

    1. force something, anything, between their teeth

    2. shout at the casualty to ensure consciousness

    3. restrain the casualty in any way possible

    4. move all objects out of the way

Chapter 9 Orienteering





  1. _____The sport of orienteering originated in

    1. Canada.

    2. Eastern Europe.

    3. Scandinavia.

    4. United States.




  1. _____Which of the following is a sport that involves land navigation over unfamiliar terrain with a map and compass?

    1. Mountain climbing

    2. Hiking

    3. Orienteering

    4. Fussganger




  1. _____What color is used to symbolize open, unforested land on an orienteering map?

    1. brown

    2. green

    3. yellow

    4. blue




  1. _____Geographical features identified in green on an orienteering map are

    1. rock features such as boulders and cliffs.

    2. vegetation requiring unusual effort to traverse.

    3. open or un-forested land.

    4. water such as lakes and ponds.




  1. _____Which of the following is the correct number of standardized colors used on topographic and orienteering maps?

    1. Two

    2. Four

    3. Five

    4. Seven




  1. _____The __________ _______ is the difference between true north and magnetic north.

    1. marginal angle

    2. topographic angle

    3. side angle

    4. declination angle




  1. _____Brown lines on a topographical or orienteering map are called

    1. rhumb lines.

    2. contour lines.

    3. convergence.

    4. scalar lines.




  1. _____What is the feature appearing on the map as a "U" or a "V" shape and representing a small valley called?

    1. Spur

    2. Ridge

    3. Knoll

    4. Re-entrant




  1. _____Which of the following colors on topographic and orienteering maps describe forests with little or no undergrowth that allows for easy passage?

    1. Black

    2. Blue

    3. White

    4. Green



  1. _____Which of the following in the borders of a map is like a table of contents and introduction of a book?

    1. Direction

    2. Scale

    3. Marginal information

    4. Colors




  1. _____Topographical maps made specifically for orienteering are typically drawn to a scale of

    1. 1:10,000 and 1:15,000.

    2. 1:30,000 and 1:40,000.

    3. 1:50,000 and 1:100,00.

    4. 1:150,000 and 1:200,000.




  1. _____What does the color white represent on orienteering maps?

    1. unknown land type

    2. prairie

    3. forest with no undergrowth

    4. tundra




  1. _____What is the most widely used compass used for orienteering which was designed in the early 1930s?

    1. Silva Type 1

    2. Silva Type 4

    3. Silva Type 3

    4. Silva Type 2

  2. _____An orienteer has determined his/her "pace count" running is 50 (same foot striking the ground). If the distance to travel between two controls is 200 meters, how many paces (running) would be required to traverse this leg?

    1. 40

    2. 100

    3. 200

    4. 400




  1. _____The experienced orienteer will often select an easily located map feature within 100 to 150 meters of the control point as an intermediate destination or

    1. beeline.

    2. guide.

    3. attack point.

    4. contour route.




  1. _____Which of the following land navigation techniques refers to the orienteer looking at the map to get a general idea of where to go?

    1. Route selection

    2. Rough orienteering

    3. Green orienteering

    4. Yellow orienteering




  1. _____An easily recognizable map feature within 100-150 meters of a control point is called a (an)

    1. destination.

    2. attack point.

    3. target point.

    4. identification point.




  1. _____When navigating in flat terrain, orienteers should avoid stretches between readily identifiable waypoints of more than

    1. 100 meters.

    2. 200 meters.

    3. 600 meters.

    4. 400 meters.




  1. _____Which land navigation technique below is a method by which the orienteer uses the compass to determine the bearing or azimuth to be followed?

    1. The contour route

    2. The steering mark

    3. The beeline

    4. The aiming off technique




  1. _____In hill country, two important considerations for route selection are

    1. attack points.

    2. slope and profile.

    3. steering marks.

    4. contour routes.




  1. _____Which land navigation technique below involves following an azimuth to the right or left or slightly beyond a hidden control point until reaching a prominent linear catch feature such as a road, fence, pond, or hillside that passes though the control?

    1. Beeline

    2. Contour route

    3. Steering mark

    4. Aiming off




  1. _____Which of the following is a location (usually a linear boundary feature like a perimeter road) where an orienteer may go in the event of injury, excessive fatigue, or becoming lost?

    1. Route lanes

    2. Guide post

    3. Blue lanes

    4. Safety lanes




  1. _____Color-coded orienteering courses from easiest (shortest) to most difficult are

    1. white, orange, yellow, brown, green, blue, and red.

    2. orange, yellow, white, brown, green, red, and blue.

    3. white, yellow, red, orange, brown, green, and blue.

    4. white, yellow, orange, brown, green, red, and blue.




  1. _____A type of orienteering competition where controls may be visited in any order and point values are assigned each control is called

    1. long-O.

    2. score-O.

    3. relay.

    4. memory-O.




  1. _____Participation in organized orienteering events is required for cadet qualification in orienteering.

    1. True

    2. False

Chapter 10 Survival





  1. _____A baked opossum contains how many grams of fat?

    1. 8.2

    2. 10.6

    3. approximately 50

    4. roughly 100




  1. _____Which of the following is an example of tinder?

    1. small branches

    2. wood wedges

    3. paper

    4. coal chunks




  1. _____The 3 major constituents of foods are

    1. oils, fats, protein

    2. carbohydrates, fats, proteins

    3. fats, protein, meat

    4. vegetables, fruits, breads




  1. _____A person that ignores an otherwise healthy food source because it is unappetizing

    1. will lose weight.

    2. will get hungry.

    3. will suffer stomach cramps.

    4. risks survival.




  1. _____Rafts, parachutes, and tarpaulins are shelters that can be erected quickly with minimum effort. What are these shelters called?

    1. Improvised shelters

    2. Two pole frame shelters

    3. Three pole frame shelters

    4. Immediate action shelters



  1. ______What is the single most important factor in determining ability to survive in cold climates?

    1. Food

    2. Good health

    3. Shelter preparation

    4. Fire




  1. _____What two items are just as necessary as food and water for a stranded person?

    1. Cooking utensils and a rifle

    2. Shelter and sleep

    3. Aspirin and matches

    4. Map and compass




  1. _____Which of the following is described as being the most urgent need in a survival situation?

    1. Survival equipment

    2. Food

    3. Water

    4. Shelter




  1. _____Which of the following is a survivor's second most urgent need in a survival situation?

    1. Shelter

    2. Health

    3. Food

    4. Fire



  1. ____An adequate shelter

    1. serves as a place to rest, and protection from the effects of the environment.

    2. is vented to allow fresh air in, and is free from evergreen boughs, and is easily transportable.

    3. Both A and B.

    4. Neither A or B.




  1. _____Which of the following is described as being a key step to take if you know that you might be in a survival situation in a wilderness area?

    1. Shelter preparation

    2. Prepare a survival kit

    3. Health maintenance

    4. Food preparation




  1. _____To maintain efficiency, survivors require a minimum daily caloric intake of

    1. 2,000 calories.

    2. 6,000 calories.

    3. 4,000 calories.

    4. 2,500 calories.




  1. _____What are the two fundamental goals of a survivor?

    1. Personal protection and injury prevention

    2. Health and self aid

    3. Maintain life, and return

    4. Communication and adequate clothing




  1. _____What does a survivor have to do to beat all odds against them to survive in a survival situation?

    1. Attend health classes

    2. Attend survival training

    3. Develop a survival pattern

    4. Build survival equipment




  1. _____Shelters that are easy to construct and dismantle in a short period of time are called

    1. three pole frame shelters.

    2. immediate action shelters.

    3. improvised shelters.

    4. four pole frame shelters.




  1. _____What are the four principle types of tropical jungle?

    1. Mangrove, primary jungle, secondary jungle, rain forest

    2. Primary jungle, secondary jungle, tertiary jungle, mangrove

    3. Mangrove, primary jungle, secondary jungle, high mountain jungle forest

    4. Rain forest, mangrove, primary jungle, high mountain jungle forest




  1. _____Traveling in a jungle environment would be greatly aided by the use of a

    1. club.

    2. machete.

    3. spear.

    4. gun.




  1. _____Which of the following jungle types is probably the most difficult type of terrain in which to travel and find food?

    1. Mangrove jungle

    2. Secondary jungle

    3. High mountain jungle

    4. Primary jungle




  1. _____Which of the following tropical jungle types is characterized by large trees and a network of vines?

    1. High mountain jungle

    2. Secondary jungle

    3. Primary jungle

    4. Mangrove jungle




  1. _____Which of the following jungle types is characterized by a swamp-like assembly of tangled roots and interwoven branches, often with a mud floor under a foot or more of brackish water?

    1. Secondary jungle

    2. Mangrove jungle

    3. High mountain jungle

    4. Primary jungle




  1. _____Which of the following jungle types is characterized by a very dense growth of smaller vegetation at ground level, often impenetrable except by use of machetes to cut through it?

    1. Secondary jungle

    2. High mountain jungle

    3. Primary jungle

    4. None of the above




  1. _____In a cold climate, you should keep your head and ears covered to prevent

    1. chills.

    2. windburn.

    3. loss of body heat.

    4. loss of memory.




  1. _____Good cold weather protection is given in clothing made of

    1. wool.

    2. cotton.

    3. nylon.

    4. rayon.




  1. _____What percent of the Earth is covered by water?

    1. 50

    2. 70

    3. 65

    4. 85





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